Legal Updates (Dec 29,2026 – Jan 03, 2026)

Legal Updates (Dec 29, 2025– Jan 3, 2026)

CASE UPDATES:

Mere violation of FEMA provisions does not, by itself, lead to the conclusion that enforcement of a foreign award would be contrary to India’s public policy

The Bombay High Court in the case of Imax Corporation vs E-City Entertainment [Commercial Arbitration Appeal (CARBA) (L) No. 38267 of 2024] dated December 30, 2025, has allowed the impleading of the related companies for the purpose of executing the arbitral award against the diverted assets, and remanded the matter to the executing court to proceed with the execution of the foreign awards, which were deemed to be decrees of the Court. 

The High Court ruled that a mere violation of FEMA provisions does not, by itself, lead to the conclusion that enforcement of a foreign award would be contrary to India’s public policy. It distinguished the FEMA regime from the stricter, erstwhile FERA regime, noting that FEMA does not render transactions void for lack of prior RBI approval.

The ruling came while considering the disputes that arose between the parties in 2003-2004, leading to arbitration before the International Chamber of Commerce (ICC) in London, where the ICC Arbitral Tribunal passed three foreign awards in favour of IMAX, opining that the Master Agreement was legally binding and the E-City had breached its obligations.  

The Court reiterated that the expression ‘Public Policy of India’ in Section 48(2)(b) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, must be construed narrowly, especially in the context of enforcing a foreign award. Thus, the Court dismissed the argument regarding the non-consideration of expert testimony, treating it as an attempt to seek a merit-based review of the foreign award, which is impermissible under Section 48 of the said 1996 Act. 

The Court observed that the facts presented a clear case for lifting the corporate veil. The diversion of assets from E-City to its associated companies during the pendency of arbitral proceedings was deemed an “impropriety” linked to the use of the corporate structure to avoid or conceal liability. Hence, the two essential conditions for piercing the veil were met: (i) control of the companies by the wrongdoers, and (ii) impropriety in the use of the corporate structure as a façade to conceal wrongdoing. 

The Court pointed out that the diversion of assets worth Rs. 210 Crores from E-City to its associated companies (2nd and 3rd Respondents) during the pendency of arbitration was a misuse of the corporate structure as a façade to conceal liability and render the assets “execution proof” while retaining control over them through the holding company (4th Respondent).

 

Refunds claimed under the Vivad Se Vishwas–I Scheme, which allows MSMEs to seek return of most performance guarantees forfeited during the pandemic, cannot be enforced through insolvency proceedings under Section 60(5) of the IBC

The Chennai NCLT in the case of R Venkatakrishnan (RP) Star Trace Pvt Ltd vs Hindustan Copper Ltd [IA/IB/2365/CHE/2024] dated December 16, 2025 , has held that refunds claimed under the Vivad Se Vishwas–I Scheme, a government COVID-19 relief measure that allows MSMEs to seek return of most performance guarantees forfeited during the pandemic, cannot be enforced through insolvency proceedings under Section 60(5) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC).

The NCLT observed that the determination of eligibility under the Vivad Se Vishwas–I Scheme, verification of entitlement, and assessment of amounts payable thereunder are matters falling squarely within the administrative domain, and not within the adjudicatory competence of this Tribunal under Section 60(5) of the IBC. Thus, Section 60(5) does not allow it to decide eligibility or grant refunds under the government scheme.

The NCLT said it could not act as an implementing authority for a government scheme or decide disputed contractual and policy issues under insolvency jurisdiction. Since the relief sought in the present Application is founded not on any provision of the IBC, but entirely on an executive policy scheme of the Government of India, the NCLT observed that it cannot issue a mandamus directing a refund under such a Scheme. 

The Tribunal also observed that the bank guarantees were unconditional and lawfully invoked, and that “the mere fact that encashment occurred during the COVID-19 period cannot, by itself, render the invocation unlawful or obligate restitution.”

 

If a secured creditor enforces its security interest under the SARFAESI Act without involving the liquidator, the amount realised does not form part of the liquidation estate

The NCLT Ahmedabad, in the case of Ramesh Kumar Totla vs State Bank of India [IA No. 1002 (AHM) 2025] dated November 21, 2025, has held that when a secured creditor enforces its security interest under the SARFAESI Act without involving the liquidator, the amount realised does not form part of the liquidation estate. 

While dealing with an application filed by the liquidator against the State Bank of India in the liquidation of Raghuvanshi Cotton Ginning and Pressing Private Limited, the NCLT held that this asset was not part of the liquidation estate and therefore would not be counted for the purpose of computation of fee even as per Regulation 4(2) of the IBBI (Liquidation Process) Regulations. According to the tribunal, only those assets over which the secured creditor has relinquished its security interest form part of the liquidation estate.

The NCLT observed that where the liquidation estate itself has no value, a fee linked to estate value cannot be claimed. Further, Regulation 4(1) gives primacy to the decision of the Committee of Creditors taken under Regulation 39D. Since SBI, as the sole member of the CoC, had already fixed the liquidator’s fee at Rs 10 lakh for the first six months, that decision was binding and could not be overridden by invoking the slab-based fee mechanism. 

 

REGULATORY UPDATES: 

IBBI makes beneficial ownership disclosure mandatory for Insolvency Resolution Applicants

The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) vide its Gazette F. No. IBBI/2025-26/GN/REG133, dated December 22, 2025, has made it mandatory for companies bidding to take over insolvent firms to clearly disclose who ultimately owns or controls them, also known as their beneficial owners. This change applies to bidders taking part in the corporate insolvency resolution process. 

Under the new regulations, every resolution applicant must submit a beneficial ownership statement along with its resolution plan. This must include the names of all natural persons who ultimately own or exercise control over the applicant. It must also explain the shareholding structure and list any intermediate entities involved. It is also expected of the bidder to specify the countries or jurisdictions in which those entities are based.

The IBBI will notify the exact format for this disclosure through a separate circular. The Bidders must also file an affidavit stating whether they are eligible to claim protection under Section 32A of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code. 

The affidavit must be filed in the format prescribed by the regulator. These requirements were introduced by adding a new provision to Regulation 38 of the Insolvency Resolution Process for Corporate Persons Regulations, 2016. Regulation 38 prescribes the contents of a resolution plan and provides how it is examined during the insolvency process. 

Click here to read/ download the original Gazette Circular 

 

SEBI mandates NISM Certification for AIF Compliance Officers

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) vide its Circular No. HO/19/(8)2025-AFD-POD1/I/1266/2025, dated December 30, 2025, has introduced a mandatory certification requirement for Compliance Officers of Managers of Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs), aiming to strengthen regulatory compliance and ensure that compliance functions within AIFs are handled by adequately qualified professionals.

SEBI has specified that Compliance Officers of AIF Managers must obtain certification from the National Institute of Securities Markets (NISM). The prescribed qualification is the NISM Series III-C: Securities Intermediaries Compliance (Fund) Certification Examination, which focuses on regulatory frameworks, compliance obligations, and fund-related governance standards.

The requirement applies to individuals currently serving as Compliance Officers as well as those appointed in the future. AIF Managers are responsible for ensuring that their Compliance Officers acquire and maintain the prescribed certification within the stipulated timeline. SEBI has clarified that with effect from 1 January 2027, only individuals who have successfully obtained the NISM certification may be appointed as Compliance Officers of AIF Managers. This provides a transition period for existing officers to meet the certification requirement. 

By mandating NISM certification for Compliance Officers of AIF Managers, SEBI seeks to enhance compliance standards and reinforce investor protection in the alternative investment space. AIF Managers should proactively plan for certification to ensure uninterrupted compliance with regulatory requirements.

Click here to read/ download the original circular 

 

RBI SFB – KYC Amendment aligns the KYC framework with the Department of Revenue’s clarification on ultimate responsibility under the Prevention of Money-Laundering regime

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) vide its Notification No. RBI/2025-26/164 dated December 29, 2025, has issued the Small Finance Banks – Know Your Customer (KYC) Amendment Directions, 2025, effective immediately, to clearly allocate responsibility for customer KYC records maintained in the Central KYC Records Registry (CKYCR). 

The amendment aligns the KYC framework with the Department of Revenue’s clarification on ultimate responsibility under the Prevention of Money-Laundering regime. It provides that the regulated entity that last uploaded or updated a customer’s KYC information in CKYCR is responsible for verifying the customer’s identity and/or address. 

Consequently, small finance banks that download and rely on such KYC records are not required to re-verify identity or address, provided the records are current and compliant with the PML Act and Rules. 

However, the relying bank continues to remain responsible for all other customer due diligence obligations and compliance requirements under the KYC Directions. The amendment seeks to eliminate duplication, improve operational efficiency, and ensure clarity in accountability without diluting AML safeguards.

Click here to read/ download the original notification  

 

SEBI revises capital adequacy and new liquid net worth requirements for Merchant Bankers 

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) vide its Circular No. HO/49/11/11(106)2025-CFD-RAC-DIL3/I/1796/2026, dated January 02, 2026, specifies the consequential requirements following the amendment of the SEBI (Merchant Bankers) Regulations, 1992, which becomes effective on January 03, 2026. The circular introduces revised capital adequacy and new liquid net worth requirements for Merchant Bankers (MBs), to be implemented in a phased manner for existing MBs by January 02, 2028. 

Existing MBs are required to re-categorise as either Category I or Category II and intimate SEBI of their choice by January 02, 2027, and the failure to meet the requirements for a category will result in automatic designation to a lower category or a prohibition on undertaking new activities. The circular defines “liquid net worth” as net worth deployed in unencumbered liquid assets, subject to specified haircuts on instruments like government securities and listed equities. Furthermore, it caps the total underwriting obligations of an MB at 20 times its liquid net worth, with compliance required by January 02, 2028. 

The regulations mandate new professional standards, requiring specific employees and compliance officers to obtain NISM certifications within stipulated timelines. The compliance officer must be separate and independent from the principal officer and other key employees, a requirement to be met by April 03, 2026. The principal officer must now have at least five years of experience in financial markets, with existing MBs required to comply by January 02, 2027. A significant operational change is the prohibition on outsourcing core merchant banking activities, and any existing agreements for such outsourced activities must be closed by April 03, 2026. 

Merchant Bankers are now required to generate minimum revenue from permitted activities on a cumulative basis over three preceding financial years, with the first assessment commencing from April 01, 2029. The circular also specifies disclosure requirements for MBs involved only in the marketing of an issue where their personnel have a specified interest in the issuer company. 

Finally, it lays down detailed conditions for MBs undertaking activities not regulated by SEBI, requiring them to be conducted on an arm’s-length basis through a separate business unit (SBU) segregated by a “Chinese Wall”. This includes maintaining separate records, grievance mechanisms, and making explicit written disclosures to all stakeholders that such activities are outside SEBI’s regulatory purview and its investor protection mechanisms are not available, with compliance for existing arrangements due by July 03, 2026.

Click here to read/ download the original circular 

 

Legal Updates (Dec 22 – Dec 27, 2025)

Legal Updates (Dec 22 – Dec 27, 2025)

CASE UPDATES:

Disclosure of personal data is permissible for a “legitimate interest”. Thus, seeking information to curb IP infringement and cyber fraud constitutes a legitimate interest, mandating disclosure by Domain Name Registrars
 
The Delhi High Court in the case of COLGATE PALMOLIVE COMPANY vs NIXI [CS(COMM) 193/2019] dated December 24, 2025, reiterated that a domain name has all the characteristics of a trademark, and its registration can constitute infringement and passing off, and emphasised that Domain Name Registrars (DNRs) are not passive intermediaries. They actively profit by offering alternative infringing domain names, premium-priced domains based on well-known marks, and other value-added services. This active participation and profiteering from infringement make them complicit.
 
Finding that the infringing domain names were identical to the Plaintiff’s well-known and distinctive marks (‘COLGATE’, ‘COLPAL’) and were used to deceive the public, the Court granted a Dynamic+ interim injunction against the seven identified infringing domain names and any future infringing domains. This injunction restrained the use of the domain names, directed the DNRs to disclose registrant details and suspend the domains, along with a direction to the MeitY/DoT to issue blocking orders.
 
The Court noted that these cases were not one-off instances but part of a large-scale fraud, wherein a Special Investigation Team, IFSO, was constituted by the Delhi Police to investigate. Since a major challenge for law enforcement was the delay by banks in providing information sought for investigations, the Court directed the RBI and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) to formulate a Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) to ensure timely and efficient sharing of information with Law Enforcement Agencies (LEAs).
 
The Court observed that by using a well-known trademark, a whole network is built to deceive consumers. Infringers open bank accounts for a temporary period, collect money, and withdraw it before the trademark owner can take effective action. Even after a court grants an injunction against one domain, new infringing domains are registered, continuing the same fraudulent pattern.
 
Further, the Court noted that these are not isolated incidents but systemic issues requiring significant changes and measures from various stakeholders, including DNRs, Domain Name Registries, ICANN, banks, telecom providers, government ministries (MeiTY, DoT), and law enforcement agencies. The Court also noted that the “privacy protect” feature, often offered as a default bundled service by DNRs, was a major impediment to identifying infringers. This practice required IP owners to approach a court in almost every case, which is impractical given the sheer volume of infringing registrations.
 
As the plaintiffs faced difficulties in enforcing court orders against DNRs, especially those without a physical presence in India, the Court directed all DNRs offering services in India to appoint Grievance Officers in compliance with the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021. For non-compliant DNRs, the Court directed MeitY/DoT to take appropriate action, including blocking their services in India, which prompted several DNRs to comply.  
 
The Court analysed the agreements governing the domain name system (ICANN-Registry, ICANN-DNR, etc.) and found that DNRs have significant obligations, including verifying registrant data, investigating inaccuracies, and acting against abuse. The NIXI Agreement for ‘.in’ domains is even stricter, prohibiting anonymous/proxy registrations and mandating e-KYC. The Bench, therefore, pointed out that DNRs are completely failing in their obligation to verify the accuracy of details provided by registrants, as evidenced by the widespread use of fake and fictitious information.
The Court held that while privacy is important, it cannot be a blanket cover for illegal activities. Under both GDPR and the Indian DPDP Act, disclosure of personal data is permissible for a “legitimate interest”. Thus, the Court affirmed that seeking information to curb IP infringement and cyber fraud constitutes a legitimate interest, mandating disclosure by DNRs.
 
The Court pointed out that DNRs who fail to observe due diligence and actively participate in or profit from infringement lose their “safe harbour” protection under Section 79 of the IT Act. Their conduct crosses the line from being an intermediary to an active participant in the unlawful act. The Court also rejected the DNRs’ argument that IP infringement does not affect “public order.” The large-scale, systematic fraud that dupes the public and erodes trust can disturb the “even tempo of the life of the community” and thus impact public order.
 
Lastly, the Court endorsed the use of “Dynamic Injunctions” to tackle mirror/redirect websites without requiring the plaintiff to file a new suit for every new iteration. It also introduced the concept of a “Dynamic+ Injunction” to protect future works of a copyright owner as soon as they are created, to prevent immediate piracy on rogue websites. Further, in cases of repeated non-compliance, the Court directed the authorities to block the services of the non-compliant DNR itself under Section 69A of the IT Act.
 
 
 
Where a director is an admitted signatory to the dishonoured cheques and the genuineness or effect of his resignation is disputed, the proceedings cannot be interdicted at the threshold under Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
 
The Delhi High Court in the case of Dinesh Kumar Pandey vs Singh Finlease [CRL.M.C. 8175/2025] dated December 25, 2025, has refused to quash multiple criminal complaints filed under Sections 138 and 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, against Dinesh Kumar Pandey, a former director and signatory of cheques issued by borrower companies, holding that his plea of resignation prior to dishonour raises disputed questions of fact which cannot be adjudicated at the quashing stage.
 
The Court exercising jurisdiction under Section 528 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, held that the complaints disclosed the basic ingredients of offences under the NI Act and that the petitioner had failed to place unimpeachable material on record to warrant interference at the threshold.
 
The complaints were instituted by M/s Singh Finlease Pvt. Ltd., a non-banking financial company, in relation to loan facilities extended to two private limited companies. The cheques issued towards repayment were dishonoured in March 2024 due to insufficiency of funds, following which statutory notices were issued and criminal proceedings initiated. Petitioner, who had been a director at the time of sanction of loans and execution of documents and was also a signatory to the cheques, was arrayed as an accused. The petitioner contended that he had resigned from the boards of the borrower companies prior to the dishonour of the cheques and could not be held vicariously liable under Section 141 of the NI Act. He relied on Form DIR-12 filings and extracts from the Ministry of Corporate Affairs portal to claim that his resignations were duly recorded and effective before the offence was complete.
 
The Court held that for the purpose of Section 141, liability is not confined to the date of dishonour alone, as the offence under Section 138 is a composite one involving several stages. The Court noted that the petitioner’s resignations closely followed the onset of defaults, and their timing and bona fides were disputed by the complainant. It further observed that the petitioner was an admitted signatory to the cheques and had actively participated in negotiating the loan facilities and executing related documentation.
 
The Court reiterated that while quashing may be permissible where unimpeachable and incontrovertible material clearly establishes a lack of responsibility at the relevant time, the present case did not fall within that narrow exception. Holding that the statutory presumptions under Sections 118 and 139 of the NI Act operated in favour of the complainant, the Court dismissed the petitions. Accordingly, the High Court declined to interfere with the summoning orders and directed that the criminal proceedings against the petitioner shall continue in accordance with law, and the petitioner’s defence would have to be tested at trial.
 
 
 
Dispute between co-legal heirs over the mutation of ancestral agricultural land is essentially civil in nature and lacks the foundational ingredients required to attract offences under the Indian Penal Code
 
The Delhi High Court in the case of Ved Prakash vs State (NCT of Delhi) [CRL.A. 45/2010] dated December 12, 2025, has quashed criminal proceedings for cheating and forgery initiated between co-legal heirs over the mutation of ancestral agricultural land, holding that the dispute was essentially civil in nature and lacked the foundational ingredients required to attract offences under the Indian Penal Code. The Court, exercising inherent jurisdiction under Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, held that “allowing the proceedings to continue would not vindicate the criminal law; it would merely prolong a family succession dispute in the garb of serious penal charges.”
 
The case arose from a private complaint alleging that the petitioners had forged the complainant’s signature on an affidavit and mutation application filed before the Tehsildar, Najafgarh, to secure mutation of ancestral land in their favour. The complainant alleged that the documents were filed without his consent and apprehended that they could be misused to deprive him of his share in the property. Notably, the mutation ultimately recorded the names of all legal heirs, including the complainant. Acting on the complaint, the Metropolitan Magistrate took cognisance and summoned the petitioners to face trial for offences under Sections 419, 420, 467, 468 and 471 read with Section 34 of the IPC.
 
The High Court noted that even if the allegations of forged signatures were assumed to be correct, the essential ingredients of cheating for cheating and forgery were not made out, and therefore, held that “there is no deception-linked deprivation or loss of property, no legally cognisable interference with a valuable security, and no identified maker of a false document who can be fastened with the requisite mens rea.”
 
The Court also took note of the inconclusive forensic report, the complainant’s son having recorded a no-objection before the Sub-Divisional Magistrate during mutation proceedings, and the suppression of this material fact while pursuing criminal action. It held that continuation of the prosecution, in the absence of core statutory ingredients of the alleged offences, would amount to an abuse of the process of law. Accordingly, the High Court quashed the complaint and all consequential proceedings against the petitioners, while clarifying that the parties were free to pursue their civil or revenue remedies in accordance with law.
 
 
 
A person who only mortgages his property as collateral security cannot be treated as a financial creditor of the borrower if he has not advanced any money; Insolvency law can be invoked only if there is a financial debt
 
The Hyderabad National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) in the case of P.L. Srinivas Reddy vs Techtrans Constructions India Private Limited [Company Petition IB/186/7/HDB/2024] dated December 19, 2025, has held that the insolvency law can be invoked only if there is a financial debt, which necessarily involves disbursal of money against consideration for time value. Accordingly, a person who only mortgages his property as collateral security cannot be treated as a financial creditor of the borrower if he has not advanced any money.
The ruling came in reference to the facts that there is no disbursal of money by the applicant to the respondent, which is an essential requirement for constituting a financial debt under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC). The Applicant can be said to be a security provider having a security interest, but not a Financial Creditor within the meaning of Sections 5(7) and 5(8) of the IBC.
 
The Tribunal was dealing with an application under Section 7 of the IBC filed by the Applicant, who had mortgaged his properties to secure credit facilities availed by the Respondent from State Bank of India (SBI). Aggrieved by the actions of SBI in initiating the SARFAESI proceedings calling upon him to discharge the outstanding liability, the Applicant approached the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT). The Applicant contended that, by depositing an amount of Rs. 1.5 crore pursuant to the order of DRT, he stepped into the shoes of the Financial Creditor by application of the principle of subrogation.
 
The Tribunal observed that the credit facilities in question were sanctioned by the SBI in favour of the Respondent, and not in favour of the Applicant, and it was limited to that of a collateral security provider. It held that the deposit of title deeds, in the absence of disbursal or a covenant creating a primary debt obligation, does not by itself create a financial debt. The Tribunal also reiterated that disbursal of money against time value is an indispensable element of a financial debt, and that even non-loan transactions fall within the ambit of financial debt only if they have the commercial effect of borrowing.
 
The NCLT further noted that the sequence of events unmistakably demonstrated that the Applicant has approached one forum after another, not for the resolution of insolvency but with the object of delaying the recovery process and protecting the mortgaged property, which was offered by him as security for the loans availed by the Respondent from SBI. Even the DRT proceedings were confined to interim protection, and not annulment of the security. Thus, the NCLT concluded that the Applicant was neither a financial creditor nor did the amount claimed constitute a financial debt under the IBC.
 
 
REGULATORY UPDATES:
 
Ease of doing investment – Review of simplification of procedure and standardisation of formats of documents for issuance of duplicate certificates
 
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) issued a Circular No. HO/38/13/11(3)2025-MIRSD-POD/I/1102/2025 dated 24 December 2025 to further simplify and standardise the procedure for issuance of duplicate securities certificates, with the objective of easing investments and protecting investor rights.
 
Revising its earlier framework, SEBI enhanced the threshold for simplified documentation from ₹5 lakh to ₹10 lakh, thereby expanding the scope of cases eligible for a streamlined process. It introduced a standardised Affidavit-cum-Indemnity format, rationalised documentation requirements for securities valued above ₹10 lakh, and dispensed with notarisation for cases involving securities up to ₹10,000, where only an undertaking on plain paper is required.
 
For higher-value cases exceeding ₹10 lakh, additional safeguards such as FIR or equivalent legal documents and newspaper publication requirements were retained. The circular applies with immediate effect, including to pending applications, and mandates that duplicate securities be issued only in dematerialised form, promoting dematerialisation and improving efficiency.
 
 
 
Ease of investments and ease of doing business measures – Enhancing the ‘Facility for Basic Services Demat Account (BSDA)’
 
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), through its Circular No. HO/38/11/11(3)2025-MIRSD-POD/I/1101/2025 dated 24 December 2025, introduced further reforms to enhance the Basic Services Demat Account (BSDA) framework to ease investments for investors and simplify compliance for Depository Participants (DPs).
 
The SEBI decided to exclude Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) bonds and delisted securities from the valuation threshold used to determine BSDA eligibility, thereby preventing such instruments from disqualifying eligible investors.
 
The Circular also clarifies valuation norms for illiquid and unlisted securities and mandates that DPs reassess BSDA eligibility quarterly. Importantly, demat accounts eligible for BSDA must be opened or converted into BSDA by default unless investors provide explicit, authenticated consent to maintain a regular demat account.
 
These changes, effective from 31 March 2026, replace specific provisions of the earlier June 2024 circular and require depositories to amend bylaws, update systems, and complete implementation within prescribed timelines to strengthen investor protection and market efficiency.
 
 
 

Legal Updates (Dec 15 – Dec 20, 2025)

Legal Updates (Dec 15 – Dec 20, 2025)

CASE UPDATES:

The exclusion provided under the Riots Strike, Malicious and Damage (RSMD) clause would not oust the insurer’s liability when the loss or damage is attributable to the peril of fire, which has its own independent exclusions

The Supreme Court in the case of Cement Corporation of India vs ICICI Lombard General Insurance Company [Civil Appeal No. 2052 of 2016] has ruled that if the damage is caused by fire, then the reason why the fire took place becomes irrelevant. When there was a fire, and something was on fire that ought not to be on fire, and the wilful act of the insured did not cause such a fire, then loss attributable to fire would be covered under the insurance policy.

The Court clarified that the exclusions in the insurance contract must be read strictly. Therefore, the exclusion provided under the Riots Strike, Malicious and Damage (RSMD) clause would not oust the insurer’s liability when the loss or damage is attributable to the peril of fire, which has its own independent exclusions.

In the present case, the Court found that the fire occurred at the factory of the Cement Corporation of India (appellant), resulting in a significant loss due to the transformer being set ablaze, and the fire could not be controlled for approximately 6 hours. The Court also noted that on the intervening night, some miscreants entered the factory and committed burglary.

Since the FIR reported that the flames were coming out of the transformer, and at no stage was any defence taken that the insured caused the fire, the Court opined that the loss caused to the appellant was due to fire only, and the incident of theft/ burglary merely preceded the incident of fire.

The Court observed that the policy indemnifies the insured against damage by any of the specified perils. Under the specified peril of ‘Fire’, the exclusions are limited to damage caused by its own fermentation, natural heating, spontaneous combustion, or burning by order of a Public Authority. However, burglary and theft are not included in the exclusions under the specified peril ‘Fire’.

The Court also observed that once it is established that the loss is caused by fire, the cause that ignited the fire becomes immaterial. The insurer cannot refuse to indemnify the damage caused by a specified peril (fire) on the ground that the proximate cause was an event excluded under a different clause (RSMD), especially when no such exclusion is provided in the specified peril ‘Fire’ itself.

The Court, therefore, concluded that there was no justification for ICICI Lombard to repudiate the claim and that the NCDRC had erred in rejecting it. Accordingly, the Court set aside the repudiation letter and the NCDRC judgment, and remanded the matter to the NCDRC for the assessment of the loss, to be decided within six months.

Click here to read/ download the original judgment 

 

In respect of a borrower having more than one facility with a bank, upon classification of one account as a non-performing asset, all the facilities granted by the bank will have to be treated as NPA and not the particular facility or part thereof which has become irregular

The NCLT Kolkata in the case of Central Bank of India vs SA Plywood Industry Private Limited [CP (IB)/174(KB)2024] dated November 24, 2025, has, relied on the RBI norms, to hold that NPA classification is borrower-wise and not facility-wise, and that once any credit facility of a borrower is declared NPA, all facilities extended by the bank must be treated as NPA for insolvency proceedings.

The Tribunal observed that the treatment of accounts, non-performing assets, is borrower-wise and not facility-wise. In respect of a borrower having more than one facility with a bank, upon classification of one account as a non-performing asset, all the facilities granted by the bank will have to be treated as NPA and not the particular facility or part thereof which has become irregular.

The Tribunal held that once any account of a borrower becomes NPA, all facilities granted to that borrower automatically assume NPA status, and that the corporate debtor cannot segregate loan facilities to avoid insolvency. Concluding that debt and default had been established, the Tribunal admitted the application, declared a moratorium, appointed the Interim Resolution Professional, and directed the bank to deposit Rs 3 lakh towards initial costs of the CIRP.

 

The Residents Welfare Association, which is not authorised by individual homebuyers, cannot initiate a corporate insolvency process on their behalf, particularly when those homebuyers do not individually meet the minimum debt threshold under the IBC

The NCLT New Delhi in the case of Heritage Max Condominium Association v. Dreamhouse Infrastructure Pvt Ltd. [CP(IB)465 (ND) of 2025] dated December 09, 2025, has held that a Residents Welfare Association that is not authorised by individual homebuyers cannot initiate a corporate insolvency process on their behalf, particularly when those homebuyers do not individually meet the minimum debt threshold under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC).

The Tribunal observed that the IBC requires strict compliance with both the statutory debt threshold and the standing of the applicant when invoking Section 9-CIRP. It noted that the application had not been filed by individual operational creditors or an authorised representative acting on their behalf, but by the Association in its own name. It further noted that the individual Applicant, in their personal capacity, does not meet the minimum threshold requirement prescribed under Section 4 of the IBC for initiation of proceedings against the Corporate Debtor.

The Tribunal observed that the statutory scheme of the Code mandates strict compliance with the threshold criteria, and in the absence of such compliance, the petition cannot be sustained. It found that although the Association sought to pursue a collective claim, the underlying debts belonged to individual homebuyers who did not, on their own, satisfy the statutory minimum.

Hence, it concluded that the Heritage Max Condominium Association could not maintain the CIRP plea against Dreamhome Infrastructure Private Limited, the developer of the project, for the alleged non-transfer and diversion of the Interest Free Maintenance Security corpus.

 

The right to a speedy trial is an inseparable facet of Article 21 of the Constitution. Unduly long deprivation of liberty pending trial of bank fraud case and siphoning off money to shell entities, strikes at the heart of Article 21, and pre-trial incarceration cannot be allowed to degenerate into punishment without adjudication

Reaffirming the principle that “bail is the rule and jail is an exception”, which stems from the presumption of innocence, and that the process should not become the punishment, the Supreme Court in the case of Kapil Wadhawan vs Central Bureau of Investigation [SLP (CRL) NO. 16953 OF 2025], has ruled that the right to a speedy trial is an inseparable facet of Article 21 of the Constitution. Unduly long deprivation of liberty pending trial strikes at the heart of Article 21, and pre-trial incarceration cannot be allowed to degenerate into punishment without adjudication.

Referring to Section 479 of the BNSS (which is formerly 436-A of the CrPC, the Court clarified that this section carves out an additional ground for an accused to seek bail and cannot be construed as a positive mandate to keep individuals incarcerated until the trial is complete, especially in cases with a maximum punishment of life imprisonment.

The Court explained that Section 479 of the BNSS has come into force to de-clog the prisons in India, which are generally plagued by the issue of overcrowding. It is a trite law that any provision involving liberty has to be construed as per the touchstone of personal liberty of a citizen, who cannot be put behind bars for a long time without following the procedure established by law.

The provision of Section 479 is to be read in addition to the provisions relating to the grant of bail under Section 481, 480 of the BNSS, which essentially carve out additional grounds for an accused seeking bail, who is incarcerated for a substantial period of time as an undertrial. Thus, the Court pointed out that those who have served one-half of the maximum sentence or one-third if he/she is a first-time offender, can apply to the Court for bail under this provision.

This provision also mandates a positive obligation on the Superintendent of Jail to seek bail, on behalf of the under-trial, if they satisfy the condition under subsection (1) of 479 of BNSS. Such a provision cannot be interpreted to suggest that it’s a mandate under law to not release under-trial prisoners unless they complete one-half or one-third of their sentence, as the case may be. Such an interpretation would create havoc in the jails and create a great burden on the prison system in India, emphasised the Court.

The Court observed that the accused, having been charged with offences having a maximum punishment of life imprisonment, cannot claim benefit under Section 479 of BNSS. However, it cannot be construed as a positive mandate to keep them incarcerated till the completion of the trial.

Coming to the facts of the case, the Court found that the appellant was made an accused on account of non-payment of loan and credit facility availed from a consortium of 17 Banks and divesting of the money in 81 shell companies. The Court also admitted that, based on documentary evidence, all the accused persons connected with these companies, except the appellants, have been granted bail. Further, a total of 11 cases have been registered against the appellant, and in all other cases, the appellants have been released on bail.

At the same time, the Court found that the chargesheet filed by the CBI is voluminous in nature, containing more than 4 lakh pages and having 736 witnesses. In addition, the proceedings against the assets have already been taken up by the NCLT, and the CIRP is in progress. However, pending trial, the charges have not yet been framed by the Court.

Therefore, finding that the conclusion of the trial is not possible in the near future, that the case is solely based on documentary evidence, all other accused persons connected with the companies have been granted bail; and that the appellants have already been released on bail in all 10 other related cases, the Court without expressing any opinion on the merits of the case, deemed it appropriate to release the appellants on bail, subject to the caveat that the appellants shall furnish a personal bond of Rs. 10 lacs, surrender their passports, and not influence the witnesses.

 

The cornerstone for invoking the SARFAESI Act is the creation of a “security interest” in favour of a “secured creditor”. As the Borrower/ Defaulter had not mortgaged its property to the Corporation, no security interest is created within the meaning of the SARFAESI Act

The Supreme Court in the case of North Eastern Development Finance Corporation vs L. Doulo Builders and Suppliers [Civil Appeal No. 6492 of 2024], had ruled that the cornerstone for invoking the SARFAESI Act is the creation of a “security interest” in favour of a “secured creditor”. Finding that the Borrower/ Defaulter had mortgaged its property to the Council, not to the Corporation, the Court clarified that the Corporation’s only recourse was the deed of guarantee provided by the Council.

As no property was mortgaged by the Defaulter Company in favour of the Corporation, no security interest was created within the meaning of the SARFAESI Act, and therefore, the Court held that the Corporation was not a “secured creditor”.

Since there is no security agreement in the present case by which a security interest has been created in favour of a secured creditor, the Court held that the SARFAESI Act was erroneously invoked by the North Eastern Development Finance Corporation, and hence, there is no question of relegating the Defaulter Company to the Debt Recovery Tribunal under Section 17 of the SARFAESI Act.

The Court observed that Article 371A of the Constitution contains special provisions for Nagaland, stating that no Act of Parliament concerning “ownership and transfer of land and its resources” shall apply to the State unless the Nagaland Legislative Assembly so decides by a resolution. Further, the SARFAESI Act was formally implemented in Nagaland only with effect from 10th December 2021, through a notification. Since the recovery actions were initiated long before this date, the invocation of the SARFEASI Act was premature and invalid.

Accordingly, the Court concluded that the High Court was correct in interdicting the Corporation’s actions as being without jurisdiction. Thus, the appeal was dismissed, leaving the Corporation free to pursue other legal remedies against the Company or the Council in accordance with the law.

Please click here to read/ download the original judgment

 

A successful resolution applicant whose resolution plan was scrapped after the Committee of Creditors opted for liquidation cannot claim interest on his performance bank guarantee if the Letter of Intent and the Request for Resolution Plan issued by the Resolution Professional do not provide for it

The NCLAT Chennai in the case of Kences Constructions Private Limited, Madala Srinivasu, Anita Madala vs. Ashish Vyas [Company Appeal (AT) (CH) (Ins) No. 554/2025] dated November 19, 2025, has held that a successful resolution applicant (SRA) whose resolution plan was scrapped after the Committee of Creditors opted for liquidation, cannot claim interest on his performance bank guarantee if the Letter of Intent and the Request for Resolution Plan issued by the Resolution Professional does not provide for it.

The Tribunal observed that the Letter of Intent operates as a binding contract governing both parties and dismissed an appeal filed by the SRA of Maan Sarovar Properties Development Pvt Ltd against an order of the NCLT Chennai. As far as the payment of interest on the Performance Bank Guarantee (PBG) is concerned, the Tribunal observed that it would be subject to the condition that the clause as enshrined in the terms of the Letter of Intent itself, or RFRP document, which is the basis of furnishing a claim or refund of the Performance Bank Guarantee (PBG).

The Tribunal also observed that the interest cannot be a self-created fiction, which the Appellant could claim as a right by applying for withdrawal of PBG. The Appellant would be under the contracting laws, bound by the terms of the Letter of interest as well as the RFRP document, which has been the basis for laying down the governing terms and conditions leading to the issuance of the Letter of Intent, which has been accepted by the Appellant and is bounded by it and the Appellant now cannot resile from it.

The Tribunal therefore concluded that under any contractual obligations or when an inter se relationship is governed by the two contracting parties, their rights and liabilities are exclusively and strictly governed by the terms and conditions contained in it, and they cannot claim more or anything beyond what has been agreed and settled between the parties under the terms of the contract.

 

Having promised a particular rate of interest upon which the investor agreed to invest money by creating FDRs, the bank cannot later, upon maturity, deny the agreed/promised rate of interest

The Allahabad High Court in the case of Nem Kumar Jain vs Union of India [WRIT – C No. – 21627 of 2023] dated November 17, 2025, has ruled that the principle of promissory estoppel is absolutely attracted in the realm of contract, and having promised a particular rate of interest upon which the investor agreed to invest money by creating FDRs, the bank cannot later, upon maturity, deny the agreed/promised rate of interest.

The Court pointed out that the reduction of the contracted interest rates on the petitioner’s FDRs was neither authorised by law nor supported by any regulatory or circular provisions, and negated the reliance on RBI circulars, calling it misplaced, as those directions relate only to the grant of additional interest and do not empower the bank to alter previously agreed contractual terms.

The Court observed that the bank has not alleged any fraud, misrepresentation, or irregularity on the part of the petitioners (investors) while opening the FDRs. The higher rate of interest was offered at the time of issuance, and the subsequent reduction was the result of a unilateral decision by the bank officials. Thus, the petitioners cannot be made to suffer for any error or oversight by the bank in offering a higher rate of interest. The Court noted that the issuance of the FDRs with a clearly stated and higher rate of interest constituted an express term of the contract by the respondent bank, based on which the petitioners had acted and allowed their deposits to remain with the bank for the full tenure.

The Court found that the petitioners were issued Fixed Deposit Receipts (FDRs) with contracted rates of interest of 10.75% and 10.25% as applicable. After years, the respondent bank, suo-moto, reduced the interest rates on these FDRs, while quoting bank and RBI circulars regarding additional interest payable to bank staff, retired staff, and senior citizens. Thus, from a careful perusal of these circulars and regulatory provisions, the Court found that they are entirely enabling in nature, governing only the discretionary grant of additional interest to eligible categories of depositors and prescribing the eligibility conditions for such benefits. Nowhere do these provisions authorise retrospective reduction or revision of the rate of interest already contracted in FDRs already issued. 

Accordingly, the Court directed the banks to compute and pay the interest on the petitioner’s FDRs at the originally contracted rates of interest as mentioned on each FDR, from the respective dates of maturity of the FDRs.

 

Merely making payments or issuing cheques on behalf of another entity does not create contractual liability in the absence of privity. Thus, a company cannot be pushed into insolvency merely for issuing cheques on behalf of another entity, in the absence of a direct contractual relationship with the creditor

The NCLAT New Delhi in the case of Satish Kumar Narula v. M/s. Healthians Research Centre Pvt Ltd. [Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 1517 of 2024] dated December 12, 2025, has held that a company cannot be pushed into insolvency merely for issuing cheques on behalf of another entity, in the absence of a direct contractual relationship with the creditor.

The Tribunal held that when there is no privity of contract between the Corporate Debtor and the Operational Creditor, it cannot be said that the Corporate Debtor had taken over the liability of the Trust/Hospital in any manner. When the Corporate Debtor has merely issued some cheques on behalf of the Trust, the legal remedy for dishonour of cheques has already been resorted to by the Operational Creditor.

The Tribunal observed that both Nayati and Healthians had independent and separate contracts with the hospital trust and that there was no direct agreement between them, as Nayati was neither an agent of the trust nor authorised to transfer or sub-grant management of hospital services. Thus, it concluded that merely making payments or issuing cheques on behalf of another entity does not create contractual liability in the absence of privity.

Since no services were provided by Healthians to Nayati, the Tribunal held that the claim did not qualify as an operational debt under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code. On this basis, the NCLAT set aside the NCLT’s order admitting the company into insolvency.

 

Non-compliance with the RBI guidelines by an NBFC cannot defeat the classification of a loan as a financial debt under Section 7 of the IBC

The NCLAT, New Delhi, in the case of Sinki Commodities Pvt Ltd vs. ABC Floors Pvt Ltd [Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 783 of 2022] dated October 14, 2025, has held that a Non-Banking Financial Company’s (NBFC) failure to comply with Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines cannot deprive a transaction of its status as a ‘financial debt’ under Section 5(8) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016, or prevent the filing of an application under Section 7 of the IBC.

The NCLAT observed that the real nature of the transaction and the time value of money must determine whether a financial debt exists, irrespective of procedural breaches of RBI circulars. The Tribunal noted the disbursement of Rs. 1.6 crores, and the payment of interest at 8% per annum, after referring to the borrower’s own letters confirming receipt of funds, the TDS Form 16A showing deduction of interest, and the confirmation of accounts reflecting loan interest entries.

The NCLAT reiterated that for a debt to qualify as a financial debt, it must involve commercial borrowing and the time value of money. The absence of a formal written agreement could not outweigh the evidence proving such a transaction. The Tribunal clarified that while RBI guidelines are statutory and binding, a breach of such directions cannot alter the legal character of a debt that otherwise satisfies the definition of financial debt under Section 5(8) of the IBC.

The NCLAT emphasised that the IBC is a special legislation, and the existence of financial debt must be determined independently of the RBI’s procedural framework. Thus, the substance of the transaction, and not merely the presence of formal documents, determines whether a debt is financial in nature. As Sinki Commodities had successfully established the existence of a financial debt and default by the corporate debtor, the Tribunal quashed the NCLT’s order and directed ABC Floors Pvt Ltd. to repay Rs. 1.6 crores along with 8% interest per annum within three months, and to submit proof of payment before the NCLT.

 

A Civil Suit or Anticipatory Bail application proceedings, which have been filed after the filing of the Section 9 IBC application, cannot be used to defeat a validly filed Section 9 application on grounds of a pre-existing dispute

The NCLAT New Delhi, in the case of Yusuf Malubhaiwala vs. Anuj Maheshwari, Insolvency Resolution Professional of Steelexpert Industries Ltd [Company Appeal(AT) No. 916 of 2025] dated December 10, 2025, has held that civil proceedings or anticipatory bail applications filed after a Section 9 CIRP plea cannot be used to claim a pre-existing dispute or block the admission of a valid insolvency petition. The Tribunal agreed with the NCLT’s findings that “the suit was filed after the Section 9 application and did not qualify as a pre-existing dispute, and the anticipatory bail proceedings had been initiated post the Section 8 Demand Notice”.

Thus, the Tribunal observed that a Civil Suit or Anticipatory Bail application proceedings which have been filed after filing of the Section 9 application cannot be used to defeat a validly filed Section 9 application on grounds of a pre-existing dispute. The Tribunal held that the Corporate Debtor’s defence lacked credibility. The alleged cash receipts were never referred to in the statutory reply to the Section 8 demand notice, nor mentioned in any police complaint, civil proceeding or bail application, and were raised only after initiation of insolvency proceedings.

The Tribunal also observed that the police complaints contained contradictory monetary figures and did not relate to goods supplied, invoices or contractual terms. None of the material relied on by the Corporate Debtor satisfied the requirement of a genuine, bona fide dispute that existed before the statutory notice. Therefore, the Tribunal concluded that the invoices, delivery challans and supporting records placed by the Creditor clearly established supply and default, and that there was no pre-existing dispute capable of defeating the CIRP application.

 

Penalties imposed by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) after the commencement of liquidation cannot be admitted as claims under the IBC if such a claim had not arisen or crystallised on the liquidation commencement date

The NCLAT New Delhi in the case of Securities and Exchange Board of India v. Rajiv Bajaj, Liquidator M/s Annies Apparel Pvt Ltd. [Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 1421 of 2024] dated December 12, 2025, has held that penalties imposed by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) after the commencement of liquidation cannot be admitted as claims under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.

The Tribunal observed that the claim had not arisen or crystallised on the liquidation commencement date, and hence, there was no infirmity in the decision of the Liquidator in not admitting the claim of the SEBI arising out of the order, which had been passed after the liquidation commencement date.

The Tribunal observed that Regulation 12(2)(a) of the Liquidation Process Regulations requires stakeholders to submit or update their claims strictly as of the liquidation commencement date, while Regulation 13 mandates verification and estimation of liabilities as they exist on that date. Thus, the regulatory framework does not contemplate the admission or estimation of liabilities arising after the liquidation commencement date.
The Tribunal reiterated that claims arising after the liquidation commencement date are inadmissible, while clarifying that the issue in the present case is not the enforcement of an assessment order passed after the liquidation commencement date, but whether a claim arising after such date can be entertained by the Liquidator.

 

REGULATORY UPDATES:


SEBI has mandated periodic disclosure requirements – The Trustee of a special purpose distinct entity shall submit the disclosures, on a half-yearly basis, to the SEBI and on the stock exchange where the Securitised Debt Instruments (SDIs) are listed, within 30 days from the end of March or September

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) vide its Circular No. HO/17/11/18(1)2025-DDHS-POD1/I/342/2025 dated December 16, 2025, has mandated periodic disclosure requirements for Securitised Debt Instruments (SDIs) in terms of Regulation 11B of the SEBI (Issue and Listing of Securitised Debt Instruments and Security Receipts) Regulations, 2008.

The Circular requires trustees of special purpose distinct entities to submit specified disclosures on a half-yearly basis to SEBI and to the stock exchanges where the SDIs are listed. These disclosures must be filed within 30 days from the end of March and September each year.

Separate disclosure formats have been prescribed for SDIs backed by loans, listed debt securities or credit facility exposures, and for SDIs backed by other types of exposures, as detailed in Annexures I and II. Illustrative guidance on the computation of weighted average maturity, weighted average rating and average default rate is provided in Annexure III.

The circular will be effective from March 31, 2026, and has been issued to protect investor interests and strengthen the regulation of the securitised debt market.

Click here to read/ download the original circular

 

SEBI has modified the conditions specified for the reduction in denomination of debt securities – Issuer shall be eligible to issue a debt security at a reduced face value, which may be either an interest-bearing or zero interest-bearing security

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) vide its Circular No. HO/17/11/24(1)2025-DDHS-POD1/I/491/2025 dated December 18, 2025, has modified the conditions specified for the reduction in denomination of debt securities. Earlier, SEBI, vide Circular No. SEBI/HO/DDHS/DDHS-PoD-1/P/CIR/2024/94 dated July 03, 2024, has provided for a reduction in denomination of debt securities and non-convertible redeemable preference shares subject to certain conditions.

The said erstwhile circular provided for a reduced face value of Rs. Ten Thousand for debt security or non-convertible redeemable preference share without any structured obligation, subject to a condition that the securities shall be interest/dividend bearing. However, this stipulation excludes those debt securities that carry a zero coupon.

The market participants have expressed that zero-coupon bearing debt securities are instruments that do not carry periodic interest, but are generally issued at a discount and redeemed at par, and the investors realise returns through the difference between the discounted issue price and the face value received at maturity.

The SEBI found that the said structure effectively resulted in compounded returns, as the investment grows over time without interim payouts. Such a structure makes these instruments attractive to investors looking to diversify their portfolios. Accordingly, the Board partly modified Clause 1.3 of Chapter V of the NCS Master circular dated October 15, 2025, and after the amendment, the issuer shall be eligible to issue debt security at a reduced face value, which may be either an interest-bearing or zero interest bearing security.

The provisions of this circular shall apply to all issues of debt securities, on a private placement basis, that are proposed to be listed from the date of issuance of this circular.

Click here to read/ download the original circular

 

SEBI has amended SECC Regulations, 2018 – Application for appointment of Executive Directors (EDs) shall be through open advertisement in all editions of at least one national daily, and before the completion of the term of the existing ED, the Market Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs) shall forward the names to SEBI at least two months before the last working day of the existing ED

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) vide its Circular No. HO/47/12/11(5)2025-MRD-POD3/I/196/2025 dated December 12, 2025, has strengthened the governance of Market Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs), including Stock Exchanges, Clearing Corporations, and Depositories.

The Circular amends the SECC Regulations, 2018 and D&P Regulations, 2018, regarding the appointment, roles, and responsibilities of Managing Directors (MDs), Executive Directors (EDs), Chief Technology Officers (CTOs), Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs), Chief Risk Officers (CROs), and Compliance Officers (COs).
The key provisions include appointment of EDs through open advertisement, reporting structures of EDs to MDs, quarterly performance evaluations, and modified reporting lines for KMPs. EDs will report to Governing Boards quarterly and may escalate matters to SEBI. Technology audits will be handled by CROs, who will also attend relevant committee meetings.

MIIs must implement these changes, amend byelaws if required, and disseminate the information publicly. The circular, effective from December 20, 2025, aims to enhance accountability, transparency, and investor protection in the securities market.

Click here to read/ download the original circular

 

SEBI has eased the KYC process for the existing NRIs – The requirement for clients to be physically located in India during digital re-KYC has been relaxed

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) vide its Circular No. HO/38/30/12(1)2025-MIRSD-SEC-FATF dated December 10, 2025, has introduced a significant relaxation in the KYC process for Non-Resident Indians (NRIs). Recognising stakeholder concerns over accessibility, SEBI has modified the Master Circular on KYC dated October 12, 2023, to ease the re-KYC process for existing NRI clients.

Specifically, the requirement for clients to be physically located in India during digital re-KYC has been relaxed. Intermediaries must ensure digital verification apps incorporate features such as random action prompts, time-stamping, geo-location verification, and IP address anti-spoofing measures.

The GPS coordinates captured must match the country of the client’s address proof, ensuring authenticity without the need for physical presence in India. This amendment aims to streamline compliance for NRIs while maintaining due diligence and fraud prevention.

Click here to read/ download the original circular

 

Legal Updates (Dec 8 – Dec 13, 2025)

Legal Updates (Dec 8 – Dec 13, 2025)

CASE UPDATES:

Resignation by an employee forfeits his past service, which makes him ineligible for any pension, but not gratuity, which is a statutory right of an employee completing five years of service tenure. Thus, the legal heirs of the deceased employee shall be entitled to receive gratuity in terms of the provisions of the Gratuity Act, 1972
 
The Supreme Court in the case of Ashok Kumar Dabas vs Delhi Transport Corporation [S.L.P.(C) No.4818 of 2023] dated December 09, 2025, has held that the legal heirs of the deceased employee shall be entitled to receive gratuity in terms of the provisions of the Gratuity Act, 1972, along with the entitlement towards the leave encashment. While explaining the difference between resignation and retirement, the Court said that resignation by an employee forfeits his past service, which makes him ineligible to any pension, but not gratuity, which is a statutory right of an employee completing five years of service tenure.
 
The declaration came in the wake of the beneficial provision of Section 4 of the 1972 Act, which stipulates that an employee who had rendered not less than five years of service will be entitled to payment of gratuity, regardless of the fact that he had retired or resigned from service.
 
The Court observed that, in terms of Section 5 of the 1972 Act, there is no notification issued by the appropriate government exempting the Delhi Transport Corporation (respondent) from the application of the 1972 Act. Once the respondent could not establish that the 1972 Act does not apply to the Corporation, the appellant’s claim for release of gratuity cannot be denied, even if he had resigned from service.
 
It was argued by the appellant that the words used in his resignation letter, i.e., “notice for resignation,” should not be literally construed but should be taken as voluntary retirement so as not to deprive him of his pension, which was earned on account of more than 20 years of service rendered by him. However, the Court rejected this argument by citing Rule 26 of the Gratuity Rules, 1972, which provides that resignation from service entails forfeiture of past service.
 
The Court pointed out that there is a difference between resignation and retirement, and the benefits flowing therefrom. Reference was made to the decision in the case of Shashikala Devi vs. Central Bank of India [2014 INSC 1045]. Hence, it was held that the appellant is only entitled to receive gratuity in terms of the provisions of the 1972 Act for the service rendered by him, as well as leave encashment, but not the pension.
 
 
 
The amended provisions of Section 13 (8) of the SARFAESI Act extinguish the right of redemption of the borrower in the event he fails to repay his dues and redeem the asset before publication of the Auction Notice
 

The Jammu & Kashmir & Ladakh High Court in the case of Gogi Motor Store vs Citizens’ Cooperative Bank [WP(C) No. 2274/2025] dated December 09, 2025, has held that the amended provisions of Section 13 (8) of the SARFAESI Act extinguish the right of redemption of the borrower in the event he fails to repay his dues and redeem the asset before publication of the Auction Notice. Since, in the present case, the right of the petitioner to redeem the secured assets stands extinguished, he cannot defer the auction notice and proceedings under the SARFAESI Act. 

The assertion came in sequence of the events which make it conspicuous that the petitioner has thrown challenge to the Auction Notice which came to be duly published in the newspapers, and it was only after the lapse of two months from the date of publication, the petitioner has filed a writ admitting his liability, and has challenged  the action of the respondent-Bank by initiating the proceedings under the provisions of the SARFAESI Act.

Reference was made to the decision of the Apex Court in the case of M. Rajendran vs M/s KPK Oils and Proteins India Pvt Ltd. [2025 SCC Online SC 2036], wherein it was held that “A borrower has no unfettered right to tender such amount of dues, as stipulated in Section 13(8), after the date of publication of notice for public auction or inviting quotations or tender from public or private treaty”. 

The Court therefore, reiterated that where the borrower tenders his loan dues after the publication of the notice stipulated in Section 13(8) of the SARFAESI Act, the secured creditor is not bound to accept it, and can continue to proceed with the transfer of the secured asset, by way of lease, assignment or sale. The Court also observed that once the Auction Notice is published, the right of redemption of the petitioner-borrower stands extinguished, and any amount, even if deposited, would be immaterial. 

Since the petitioner has failed to repay his dues till the publication of the Auction Notice, and the third respondent was not only declared as a successful bidder but has deposited the entire consideration as per the terms of the Auction Notice with the respondent Bank, the Court emphasised that the petitioner has made an abortive attempt just to delay the process after having been failed to respond to all the notices issued under the SARFAESI Act to deposit the outstanding amount.


Payment of matured deposit to ‘either’ or ‘surviving’ joint account holder constitutes a valid discharge of the bank’s liability
 
The Jammu & Kashmir & Ladakh High Court in the case of Shabeena Ibrahim vs Usman Disooki [CRM(M) No.485/2023] dated November 26, 2025, has held that if the operating instructions in a joint account is ‘either or survivor’ and one of the account holders expires before the maturity, no pre-payment of the fixed/term deposit can be allowed without the concurrence of the legal heirs of the deceased joint holder. It is further clear that, upon maturity, the fixed/term deposit can be paid to the survivor.
 
The Court observed that unless the bank is restrained by an order of a competent court, the bank would be within its rights to make payment to the survivor named in the account. Thus, in a case where a joint account is opened with a survivorship clause, the payment of the balance lying in the deposit account to the survivor of the deceased deposit account holder would be a valid discharge of a bank’s liability. However, the payment made to a survivor would not affect the right or claim which any person may have in respect of the amount released in favour of the survivor.
 
The Court referred to the RBI’s Master Circular on Customer Service in Banks (DBOD.No.Leg.BC.95/09.07.005/2004-05, dated June 9, 2005), which mandates that banks incorporate survivorship clauses into account-opening forms and publicise their benefits. The Circular clarifies that in the case of deposit accounts where the depositor had utilized the nomination facility and made a valid nomination or where the account was opened with the survivorship clause (‘either or survivor’, or ‘anyone or survivor’, or ‘former or survivor’ or ‘latter or survivor’), the payment of the balance in the deposit account to the survivor(s)/nominee of a deceased deposit account holder represents a valid discharge of the bank’s liability. This discharge holds provided the bank verifies the survivor’s identity and death certificate, and no court order restrains payment, conditions fully met here.
 
The Court also referred to the RBI’s Master Circular on Maintenance of Deposit Accounts (RBI/2014-15/17,DBR.No.Dir.BC.10/13.03.00/2014-15, dated July 1, 2014), to observe that for term deposits with survivorship, premature withdrawals require joint consent if both are alive, but post-death payments to the survivor are routine and liability-free. Thus, once the petitioner bank transfers the amount from the joint account to the survivor, the petitioner bank is discharged from its liability towards all claims. The Account number changes were deemed administrative, not manipulative, and the pending civil suit did not bind the bank absent an injunction.
 
 
Transfer of ownership of the secured asset in case of a statutory sale under SARFAESI takes place upon the issuance of the sale certificate; Amendment to Section 13(8) of the SARFAESI merely advances the date of extinguishment of the right of redemption available to a borrower, but it does not affect ownership rights in the secured asset
 
The Bombay High Court in the case of Arrow Business Development Consultants vs Union Bank of India [Writ Petition No. 11132 of 2025] dated December 10, 2025, has clarified that the transfer of ownership of the secured asset in case of a statutory sale under SARFAESI takes place upon the issuance of the sale certificate. The amendment to Section 13(8) of the SARFAESI merely advances the date of extinguishment of the right of redemption available to a borrower, and the loss of the right of redemption does not tantamount to the loss of ownership rights in the secured asset.
 
The sale conducted under the provisions of the SARFAESI Act in the present case was not completed, as the interim moratorium imposed under Section 96 of the IBC stayed all proceedings in respect of any debt of the borrowers, during the intervening period, viz., from the date of confirmation of sale till the issuance of the sale certificate. The Court, therefore, held that a statutory sale under the SARFAESI Act is complete only when the entire payment is made by the auction purchaser and the secured creditor issues a sale certificate under Rule 9(6) of the SARFAESI Rules. The sale is not considered complete merely upon confirmation or receipt of part payment.
 
The Court observed that a sale certificate can be issued only if the entire payment is made to the secured creditor, and if the sale certificate is not issued, prior to the coming into force of the moratorium, then the sale is not complete. In the present case, the Court found that after the first two tranches of payment, the entire balance of six tranches of payment was made by the petitioner and received by the bank after the imposition of the interim moratorium.
 
Therefore, the Court observed that once the interim moratorium under Section 96 of the SARFAESI Act is in force, a secured creditor cannot receive the balance payment from the successful purchaser. Thus, if the interim moratorium kicks in post confirmation of the sale but before the balance payment is made, the only outcome is that there is no transfer of ownership of the secured asset in favour of the successful purchaser. This being the case, the Court concluded that if there is any legal embargo in completing the sale, the successful purchaser cannot claim any ownership rights. Moreover, the interim moratorium under Section 96 of the SARFAESI Act is much wider than that under Section 14 of the IBC.  
 
SEBI issues clarification on Digital Accessibility for REs
 
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) vide its Circular No. HO/13/19/13(2)2025-ITD-1_VIAP/I/187/2025 dated December 08, 2025, titled “Clarification on Digital Accessibility Requirements”, provides clarification on SEBI’s earlier circulars (dated July 31, August 29, and September 25, 2025) regarding digital accessibility requirements for digital platforms of Regulated Entities (REs).
 
The circular mandates that the “Investors’ Right to have digital accessibility” will now be incorporated into all relevant Investor Charters. Instead of appointing accessibility auditors by December 14, 2025, REs must submit their readiness and compliance status for each digital platform by March 31, 2026, to the designated reporting authorities, with submissions to SEBI routed through a specified email ID.
 
The SEBI has also provided a standard format for reporting and clarified that investors may lodge accessibility-related complaints on SCORES, which REs must resolve to close the complaint. All REs are required to conduct periodic accessibility audits of websites, apps, and portals through certified accessibility professionals.
 
The circular, issued under Section 11(1) of the SEBI Act, aims to enhance investor protection and ensure accessible, compliant digital interfaces across the securities market ecosystem.
 
 
Reserve Bank of India (Commercial Banks – Undertaking of Financial Services) (Amendment) Directions, 2025
 
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) vide its Notification No. RBI/DOR/2025-26/135 dated December 05, 2025, has updated the Master Directions on financial services. These amendments clarify the roles of banks and their group entities in conducting financial and non-financial activities, including agency business, referral services, lending, and investment management.
 
The key provisions specify that core banking functions and acceptance of time deposits must be undertaken departmentally, while mutual fund, insurance, pension, and portfolio management services must be conducted via group entities.
 
The directions impose prudential investment limits: a single bank may invest up to 10% in any entity, and aggregate investments, including group and overseas entities, may not exceed 20%, with prior approval required for higher exposures.
 
Specific restrictions on Asset Reconstruction Companies, Alternative Investment Funds, and Real Estate/Infrastructure Investment Trusts are detailed. Compliance deadlines require submission of action plans by March 31, 2026, with full conformity by March 31, 2028, ensuring enhanced regulatory oversight and risk management across bank groups.
 
 
 
Reserve Bank of India (Non-Banking Financial Companies – Undertaking of Financial Services) (Amendment) Directions, 2025
 
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) vide its Notification No. RBI/DOR/2025-26/138 dated December 05, 2025, has revised the regulatory framework for NBFCs that undertake financial services. These amendments follow the replacement of earlier 2016 guidelines with updated entity-wise Master Directions issued on November 28, 2025, and incorporate feedback from stakeholders and public consultations.
 
A key addition is new paragraph 60A, which mandates that NBFCs forming part of a Scheduled Commercial Bank group must also comply with the Commercial Banks – Undertaking of Financial Services Directions, 2025, whenever both the NBFC and the parent bank engage in the same business activity.
 
This ensures uniform regulatory treatment, prevents regulatory arbitrage, and strengthens governance and oversight across bank-led financial conglomerates. The amendments have been introduced under powers granted by Sections 45(L) and 45(JA) of the RBI Act to enhance public interest and regulatory consistency.
 
 
 
SEBI allows migration to AI-Only and Large Value Fund Schemes
 
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) vide its Circular No. HO/19/34/11(5)2025-AFD-POD1/I/188/2025 dated December 08, 2025, has outlined modalities for migration to Accredited Investor (AI)-only schemes and operational relaxations for Large Value Funds (LVFs) under the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012.
 
The circular permits existing AIFs or schemes to convert to AI-only or LVF schemes with investor consent, subject to reporting requirements to SEBI and depositories within 15 days of conversion. AI status of an investor at onboarding is retained throughout the scheme tenure. The maximum permissible extension for AI-only schemes is five years, including prior tenure.
 
The LVFs are exempt from following the standard placement memorandum template and annual audit requirements without specific investor waivers. Trustees or sponsors must ensure compliance through the ‘Compliance Test Report.’ The circular, effective immediately, aims to simplify operations, enhance flexibility, and facilitate ease of doing business for AIFs while protecting investor interests.
 
 
 
Reserve Bank of India (Non-Operative Financial Holding Company) (Amendment) Directions, 2025
 
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) vide its Notification No. RBI/DOR/2025-26/139 dated December 05, 2025, has introduced amendments to the existing Master Direction governing Non-Operative Financial Holding Companies (NOFHCs), with the changes effective immediately. The amendments replace paragraphs 44–47 of the Master Direction, reiterating that all activities permitted to banks under Section 6(1)(a)–(o) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 must be undertaken directly by the bank.
 
The specialised activities, such as mutual funds, insurance, pension fund management, investment advisory, portfolio management, and broking, must be conducted only through subsidiaries, joint ventures, or associates. NOFHCs are not required to seek prior RBI approval for these specified activities, but must notify the RBI within 15 days of board resolution. Prior approval remains mandatory for any other business, and activities not permitted to banks are barred for NOFHC group entities as well.
 
 
 
Reserve Bank of India (Payments Banks – Undertaking of Financial Services) (Amendment) Directions, 2025
 
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) vide its Notification No. RBI/DOR/2025-26/137 dated December 05, 2025, has updated the framework for Payments Banks following the entity-wise Master Directions released on November 28, 2025. The amendments, developed after public consultation and stakeholder feedback, clarify the definitions and permissible activities for Payments Banks engaging in third-party financial products.
 
The amendment introduces a revised definition of Agency Business, allowing banks to act as agents of third-party product or service providers (TPPSPs) for regulated financial products, including insurance, mutual funds, and pensions, without assuming risk. It outlines responsibilities such as marketing, sales, customer support, and after-sales services.
 
Additionally, Referral Services are defined to permit Payments Banks to refer customers to TPPSPs without involvement in product processes or branding, ensuring operational separation and compliance. The directions aim to standardise practices, maintain regulatory clarity, and protect customer interests while enabling Payments Banks to participate in agency and referral business models.
 
 
 
Reserve Bank of India (Small Finance Banks – Undertaking of Financial Services) (Amendment) Directions, 2025
 
The Reserve Bank of India vide its Notification No. RBI/DOR/2025-26/136 dated December 05, 2025, has revised definitions and guidelines for agency business and referral services, specifying that banks can act as agents for regulated third-party products but cannot handle referral processes directly.
 
The amendment clarifies that certain financial services, such as mutual funds, insurance, pension fund management, investment advisory, portfolio management, and broking, must be undertaken through a group entity under a Non-Operating Financial Holding Company (NOFHC), not departmentally. The notification also revises equity investment limits for banks, including individual and aggregate investment caps, investment conditions, and reporting requirements.
 
Further, restrictions on sponsorship of Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) and investment in Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs), Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs), and Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) are outlined, along with timelines for compliance. Additional provisions include professional clearing member eligibility and prudential criteria for derivative markets.
 
 
 

Legal Updates (Dec 1 – Dec 6, 2025)

Legal Updates (Dec 1 – Dec 6, 2025)

CASE UPDATES:
 
1. Agreed contractual interest between parties of equal bargaining strength could not be termed unconscionable or contrary to public policy by the arbitrator
 
The Supreme Court in the case of BPL Limited vs Morgan Securities and Credits Private Limited [Civil Appeal Nos. 14565 – 14566 of 2025] dated December 04, 2025, has held that the agreed contractual interest between parties of equal bargaining strength could not be termed unconscionable or contrary to public policy. Accordingly, the Court dismissed BPL Limited’s challenge to an arbitral award directing payment of over ₹27 crore with contractual interest, holding that the 36% p.a. rate under the Bill Discounting facility was part of a voluntary commercial bargain and could not be interfered with.
 
The Supreme Court held that bill discounting is a short-term, high-risk commercial financing mechanism where elevated interest rates are neither unusual nor inherently unfair. The court held that the “maxim verba chartarum fortius accipiuntur contra proferentem” had no application because the sanction letters were clear, unambiguous commercial contracts negotiated between parties of equal bargaining strength, leaving no scope to construe any clause against the drafter.
 
The Court noted the Respondent’s explanation that its business model was posited on the grant of such unsecured facilities for very short periods of time, allowing rapid redeployment of funds, and that a default disrupted this cycle for decades, resulting in loss. This made the compensatory contractual requirement of compounding in the case of defaulters neither penal nor improper. It further emphasised that Section 31(7)(a) embodies party autonomy, which governs arbitral interest unless a non-derogable legal bar applies.
 
The Court further held that the contract deliberately offered a concessional rate as an incentive for punctual repayment. “Withdrawal of such concession and the consequential levy of a higher rate, with compounding, cannot be faulted as being penal.” Finding no violation of public policy or fundamental legal principles, the Supreme Court upheld the arbitral award in full.
 

 
2. Complaints arising from the dishonour of account payee cheques must be instituted only before the court that has jurisdiction over the branch of the bank where the payee maintains his account, even if the cheque is deposited at a branch different from the payee’s home branch
 
The Supreme Court in the case of Jai Balaji Industries vs Heg Limited [Transfer Petition (Criminal) No. 1099 of 2025] dated November 25, 2025, has held that the jurisdiction to try a complaint filed under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act (NI Act), 1881, in respect of a cheque delivered for collection through an account, i.e., an account payee cheque, is vested in the court within whose local jurisdiction the branch of the bank in which the payee maintains the account, i.e., the payee’s home branch, is situated.
 
The Court observed that the payee could not select the jurisdiction for trial of an offence under Section 138 of the NI Act by presentation of the cheque at a location of his choosing, though a cheque can be presented at any branch of the payee’s bank as per the NI Act for the purposes of commercial convenience. Since an offence under Section 138 could be said to be committed upon dishonour of a cheque by the drawee bank, such offence would be localised at the place where the drawee bank is situated. Therefore, only the court within whose territorial jurisdiction the drawee bank is situated was empowered to proceed against an accused person under Section 138.
 
The Court stated that Section 142 indicates that the jurisdiction to try the offence under Section 138 has been specified in two circumstances: first, when the cheque is delivered for collection through an account, and secondly, when the cheque is presented for payment otherwise through an account. The Explanation to Section 142(2)(a) further clarifies the question of jurisdiction by taking into account the realities of negotiating by way of cheques and the technological advancement in the field. However, the “making” of a cheque is complete only upon delivery of the same by the drawer. The act of “delivery” thus creates a relationship between the drawer and the payee. Such a relationship is what describes the entitlement of the payee to the amount of money for which the cheque is drawn and enables the payee to encash the same.
 
The Court observed that the nature of the cheque becomes crystallised as an account payee cheque once the drawer delivers it to the payee, who further delivers it to the bank in which he maintains his account. Once the cheque is delivered by the payee to his bank, the “making” of the cheque is said to be complete. The inclusion of the expression “for collection through an account” in Section 142(2)(a) of the NI Act is only to indicate the intention of the drawer to “make” the cheque in such a manner that it can only result in a transaction between the bank accounts of the drawer and the payee.
 
The Court explained that what Section 138 of the NI Act describes by use of the expression “on an account maintained by him with a banker” is a simpliciter relationship between a person and his banker. The inclusion of “branch” in Sections 142(2)(a) and (b) places an additional condition for determining the place where the payee or drawer maintains the account. This additional condition is placed on the relationship between a person and his banker in order to decide the question of jurisdiction and streamline the process of adjudication.
 
The Court observed that once it is identified that the cheque in question is an account payee cheque, the delivery must be to such branch in which the payee maintains the account as it is this branch of the bank that will receive the funds in the account maintained by the payee, from the drawee bank which will debit the drawer’s account to send such amount. However, the necessity of delivery of an account payee cheque to the home branch is only legal and not commercial.
 
Thus, the Court concluded that the deeming fiction in the Explanation to Section 142(2)(a) of the NI Act ensures that even if a cheque is delivered to a branch other than the home branch for commercial convenience, it shall be considered to have been delivered to the home branch for the legal purpose of determining jurisdiction.
 

 
3. Only CCI can determine the monopolistic position under Section 19(4)(g) of the Competition Act enjoyed by any business goliath that may be attributable to a singular or pluralistic league of factors, and the TRAI is handicapped statutorily in doing so
 
Emphasising that the Competition Commission of India (CCI) is the only agency competent to determine the ‘monopolistic’ and ‘dominant position’ of any enterprise, the Kerala High Court in the case of Jiostar India vs CCI [Writ Appeal No. 1551 of 2025] dated December 03, 2025, has held that the monopolistic position under Section 19(4)(g) of the Competition Act enjoyed by any business goliath may be attributable to a singular or pluralistic league of factors, which the TRAI is handicapped statutorily in doing. Only the CCI can determine whether any enterprise/ entity actually enjoys a dominant position in the market or not.
 
Accordingly, the High Court dismissed Jiostar’s appeal against the CCI probe and upheld the single judge’s verdict allowing the CCI to continue its investigation into allegations that the broadcaster favoured Kerala Communicators Cable Ltd (KCCL) in the pricing of channels.  
 
The Court explained that the width of the powers lodged with the CCI is indicative of the Parliamentary intent of bringing about sweeping changes in the economy which were necessitated owing to transition of the market from a licence/ permit raj to liberalisation in the late 1990s and from the opening up of the Indian territories to the international market owing to globalisation and trans-border/ trans-country businesses and investments in the country.
 
The Court also highlighted that Section 19(4) of the Competition Act is further indicative of the wide amplitude of powers vested with the CCI to reckon ‘all’ or ‘any’ of the factors whilst arriving at the finding as to whether any enterprise (like the SIPL in the instant case) enjoys a dominant position or not. So, when Section 19(4)(g) declares ‘monopoly’ or ‘dominant position’ as a trigger for ascertaining whether anti-competitive practices have been adopted or competition is being adversely affected, it is the CCI that can take into consideration singular or plural factors for such a determination.
 
The Court observed that the parallel enquiry or proceedings can continue under both the Competition Act as well as the TRAI Act under their respective enactments. If the grievance relates simpliciter to the licensing regulations or broadcasting regulations, without having any overtones of the subject matter of the Comp. Act, then TRAI must proceed with the inquiry, and CCI must keep its hands off. However, if the grievance stems from and raises the dispute falling within any of the categories of anti-competitive practices, then CCI can proceed with the inquiry regardless of the overlap with the powers and functions of TRAI under the TRAI Act.
 
Highlighting the scope of ample powers of the CCI which it possesses to pass an order of inquiry under Section 26(1) of the Competition Act on the complaint/ information of ADNPL if it is prima facie satisfied that anti-competitive practices have been resorted to by SIPL under the provisions of the Competition Act, the Court rejected the contention of the appellant SIPL that CCI could not have even formed a prima facie opinion or passed an order under Section 26(1) of the Competition Act. Thus, the CCI is entitled under law to proceed further with the matter after passing out the impugned order under Section 26(1) of the Competition Act and that ADNPL cannot be relegated to raise its dispute or grievance before the TRAI. However, under Section 21-A, the CCI should, if found appropriate at the relevant stage must invite comments, opinions and consult the TRAI in view of the nature of allegations relatable to and touching upon the provisions of Regulation 7(3) and (4) of the TRAI Regulations, 2017.
 

 
4. An order passed by a Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA) does not amount to a civil court decree and cannot be executed through civil execution proceedings. RERA orders must be enforced only through the statutory recovery mechanism provided under the RERA Act
 
The Karnataka High Court in the case of Mantri Developers vs Snil Pathiyam Veetil [W.P. Nos. 17821/2025] dated October 31, 2025, has held that an order passed by a Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA) does not amount to a civil court decree and cannot be executed through civil execution proceedings.
 
The statutory scheme shows that RERA is a ‘self-contained code’ whose decisions do not conform to any of the requirements of a decree as defined in Section 2(2) CPC, and therefore, its orders cannot be executed as civil decrees. Accordingly, the RERA orders must be enforced only through the statutory recovery mechanism provided under the RERA Act.
 
The Court observed that the order of the Adjudicating Officer or the order of the Appellate Tribunal, constituted under the RERA Act, does not assume the mantle of a decree, within the contemplation of Section 2(2) of the CPC. Therefore, such an order/orders cannot traverse the path of execution delineated under Order XXI of the CPC.
 
Further, the proceedings before the RERA are not conceived in the mould of a civil suit, though the RERA Act provides the procedure to be followed, as if it were a civil Court and therefore, cannot culminate in a decree in the classical sense. Accordingly, the Court held that the applications so filed by the petitioner invoking Section 47 of the CPC to hold that the concerned Executing Court did not have jurisdiction were in tune with the law.

 
REGULATORY UPDATES:
 
1. Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS)- Submission of ‘LRS Daily Return’ by Authorised Dealers- Category -II banks/ entities and Full-Fledged Money Changers
 
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) vide its Notification No. RBI/2025-26/102 dated December 03, 2025, has introduced submission of the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) daily return by Authorised Dealer (AD) Category-II banks/entities and Full-Fledged Money Changers (FFMCs). Previously, only AD Category-I banks submitted daily LRS returns on the Centralised Information Management System (CIMS) and included LRS transactions of their attached AD Category-II banks and FFMCs.
 
From January 1, 2026, AD Category-II banks/entities and FFMCs will directly submit their own LRS daily returns, including nil reports, via CIMS, allowing them to monitor the cumulative PAN-wise LRS remittances of residents before approving new transactions. Consequently, they will no longer submit LRS transactions through AD Category-I banks.
The notification updates the Master Direction on reporting under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, and guides CIMS submission and support through the Foreign Exchange Department of regional RBI offices. The directions are issued under Sections 10(4) and 11(2) of FEMA, 1999.
 

 
2.  RBI has updated references to the new KYC Directions, revisions to digital KYC and V-CIP provisions, and harmonised requirements for OVDs, mandatory documents, and due diligence procedures
 
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) vide its Notification No. RBI/2025-26/101 dated November 28, 2025, has repealed the RBI Master Direction DBR.AML.BC.No.81/14.01.001/2015-16 dated February 25, 2016, and replaced it with the new “Reserve Bank of India (Commercial Banks – Know Your Customer) Directions, 2025”, effective immediately. All Payment System Providers and Participants must now align their KYC, AML, and CFT compliance processes with the updated 2025 framework.
 
The Notification also amends several existing regulatory instructions under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, ensuring uniformity across prepaid payment instruments, payment aggregators, AePS operators, domestic money transfer frameworks, and TReDS platforms.
 
The key changes include updated references to the new KYC Directions, revisions to digital KYC and V-CIP provisions, and harmonised requirements for OVDs, mandatory documents, and due diligence procedures. The updated regulatory structure aims to streamline compliance, enhance customer verification standards, and ensure consistency across all payment systems.
 

 
3. RBI updates the KYC Rules for Authorised Persons under FEMA
 
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) vide its Notification No. RBI/2025-26/99 dated November 29, 2025, has revised the KYC compliance framework for all Authorised Persons (APs) dealing in foreign exchange, money changing, overseas investments, remittances, and MTSS operations.
 
With the earlier 2016 KYC Master Direction now replaced, APs must follow entity-specific KYC directions applicable to them. Those regulated by the Department of Regulation (“DoR”) must comply with their respective KYC frameworks, while APs not regulated by DoR must adhere to the “RBI (Non-Banking Financial Companies – Know Your Customer) Directions, 2025.”
 
The Notification also requires APs to ensure that their agents, sub-agents, and franchisees follow the same updated norms. The directions have been issued under FEMA sections 10(4) and 11(1), and related Master Directions, including those on money changing, overseas investment, remittance facilities, and MTSS, are being amended.
 

 
4. Reserve Bank of India (Commercial Banks – Undertaking of Financial Services) (Amendment) Directions, 2025
 
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) vide its Notification No. RBI/DOR/2025-26/135 dated December 05, 2025, has updated the Master Directions on financial services to clarify the roles of banks and their group entities in conducting financial and non-financial activities, including agency business, referral services, lending, and investment management.
 
The Key provisions specify that core banking functions and acceptance of time deposits must be undertaken departmentally, while mutual fund, insurance, pension, and portfolio management services must be conducted via group entities. The directions impose prudential investment limits: a single bank may invest up to 10% in any entity, and aggregate investments, including group and overseas entities, may not exceed 20%, with prior approval required for higher exposures.
 
Specific restrictions on Asset Reconstruction Companies, Alternative Investment Funds, and Real Estate/Infrastructure Investment Trusts are detailed. Compliance deadlines require submission of action plans by March 31, 2026, with full conformity by March 31, 2028, ensuring enhanced regulatory oversight and risk management across bank groups.
 

 
5. Reserve Bank of India (Payments Banks – Undertaking of Financial Services) (Amendment) Directions, 2025
 
The Reserve Bank of India vide its Notification No. RBI/DOR/2025-26/137 dated December 05, 2025, has updated the framework for Payments Banks following the entity-wise Master Directions released on November 28, 2025. The amendments, developed after public consultation and stakeholder feedback, clarify the definitions and permissible activities for Payments Banks engaging in third-party financial products.
 
The amendment introduces a revised definition of Agency Business, allowing banks to act as agents of third-party product or service providers (TPPSPs) for regulated financial products, including insurance, mutual funds, and pensions, without assuming risk. It outlines responsibilities such as marketing, sales, customer support, and after-sales services.
Additionally, Referral Services are defined to permit Payments Banks to refer customers to TPPSPs without involvement in product processes or branding, ensuring operational separation and compliance. The directions aim to standardise practices, maintain regulatory clarity, and protect customer interests while enabling Payments Banks to participate in agency and referral business models.
 

 

Legal Updates (Nov 24 – Nov 29, 2025)

Legal Updates (Nov 24 – Nov 29, 2025)

CASE UPDATES:

Compliance with the NCLT Rules cannot substitute for the specific obligation imposed by the IBC, and mere filing of a ‘defective’ affidavit in support of an application would not render the very application non est and liable to be rejected on that ground, as it is neither an incurable nor a fundamental defect

The Supreme Court in the case of Livein Aqua Solutions Private Limited vs HDFC Bank Limited [Civil Appeal No. 11766 of 2025] dated November 24, 2025, has held that the financial creditor must be allowed to correct procedural deficiencies in its Section 7 application under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, directing it to cure the noted defects within seven days before the National Company Law Tribunal resumes proceedings. In the matter arising from a dispute concerning a loan that was later classified as a non-performing asset and the creditor’s attempt to initiate the corporate insolvency resolution process, the Court stated that irregularities such as a flawed affidavit are remediable and cannot form the basis for immediate rejection. 

The dispute concerns a financial creditor’s application under Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) seeking initiation of the corporate insolvency resolution process against a company that had availed a loan facility of ₹5.5 crores. The account was classified as a non-performing asset, following which the creditor filed the statutory Form 1 application before the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), accompanied by documents prescribed under the IBC framework. The application was supported by an affidavit that had been executed before the date on which the application itself was verified. 

The Court examined the procedural scheme governing applications under Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code and the requirements under the National Company Law Tribunal Rules and observed that the scrutiny process undertaken by the NCLT Registry, including the issuance of consolidated notices for several matters, did not satisfy the statutory mandate requiring notice to the applicant itself under the proviso to Section 7(5)(b). Further, compliance with the NCLT Rules cannot substitute for the specific obligation imposed by the IBC.

The Court pointed out that mere filing of a ‘defective’ affidavit in support of an application would not render the very application non est and liable to be rejected on that ground, as it is neither an incurable nor a fundamental defect. The procedure, a handmaiden to justice, should never be made a tool to deny justice or perpetuate injustice, by any oppressive or punitive use. Also, curable defects cannot be treated as grounds for terminating proceedings at the outset unless the statute expressly requires such a consequence. The Court, therefore, observed that the NCLAT ought to have asked the respondent-bank to cure the defective affidavit at least at that stage, instead of ignoring it and directing the NCLT to proceed to hear the company petition on merits and in accordance with law. Thus, the Court directed the respondent bank to cure the defects. 

Click here to read the original judgment


Seeking a stay on the Family Court order under the guise of insolvency proceedings under the Presidency Towns Insolvency Act, 1909, would undermine the very purpose of the maintenance order passed by the Family Court and would embolden the debtor to escape liability through insolvency proceedings, which is not permitted. The amount payable for the maintenance of the wife cannot be termed as “debt”.

The Bombay High Court in the case of Mehul Jagdish Trivedi vs Manisha Mehul Trivedi [Insolvency Petition No. 01 of 2025] dated November 20, 2025, has ruled that the husband (debtor) cannot seek a declaration as an “insolvent” under the Presidency Towns Insolvency Act, 1909, just because he has pleaded inability to pay the maintenance amount to his estranged wife, as per the order of the Family Court. The Court therefore refused to grant relief to the debtor-husband, who has sought to take the shield of “insolvency” to protect himself from the sword of the Family Court order that makes him liable to pay maintenance. 

The Court emphasised that, by seeking a stay of the Family Court order under the guise of insolvency proceedings, the petitioner (husband) would undermine the very purpose of the maintenance order passed by the Family Court and would embolden the debtor to escape liability through insolvency proceedings.

The Court also clarified that the Insolvency Act cannot be abused to seek a stay of the Family Court’s order granting maintenance when the petitioner himself has challenged that order in the Criminal Revision Petition. Further, the debtor cannot adopt a modus operandi by taking recourse to the Insolvency Act to modify or frustrate the order passed by the Family Court. Since, under the Insolvency Act, there is a specific provision under Section 9(2) for dealing with insolvency proceedings based on a decree or order for payment of money, the petitioner cannot take shelter of Section 9(1)(f) of the Insolvency Act, and cannot bypass the provisions of sub-section (2) of Section 9 for declaring himself as an insolvent. 

The Court referred to the provision of Section 14(1)(a) read with Section 9(1)(f) of the Insolvency Act that entitles a person to present an insolvency petition by treating the same as an act of insolvency, which is only for the purpose of defining eligibility to file the petition and not for an automatic order by the Court to be declared as an insolvent. The Court clarified that Section 14(1)(a) only lays down the qualifying amount for filing the insolvency petition by a debtor, and merely because the debts are more than Rs. 500, it does not mean that automatically on a petition being filed, the Court has no option but to declare the petitioner as an insolvent. 

As far as the issue of whether the order/decree of a Civil Court passed against the husband for maintenance of his wife is a “debt” or not, the Court referred to the decision in the case of Hemavathiamma vs. Kumaravela Mudalia [AIR 1968 Mysore 111], where the then Mysore High Court had concluded that the amount payable for the maintenance of wife cannot be termed as a debt but it is a moral duty and, therefore, an order of declaring the husband therein as an insolvent cannot be passed under the Provincial Insolvency Act. 

Click here to read/ download the original judgment 

 

Any transfer of assets after commencement of the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process is illegal and in violation of the moratorium under Section 14 of the IBC, even if the transfer is supported by a No Objection Certificate issued by a secured creditor 

The Allahabad NCLT in the case of Paramjeet Singh Bhatia (RP) Vs. Sirajuddin Qureshi and Ors. [IA No.549/2024 IN CP No (IB) 04/ALD/2019], has held that any transfer of assets after commencement of the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) is illegal and in violation of the moratorium under Section 14 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, even if the transfer is supported by a No Objection Certificate issued by a secured creditor. The Tribunal clarified that such acts cannot be characterised as mere procedural consequences and amount to unlawful alienation of assets during CIRP.

Rejecting the defence that transfer registration was a procedural outcome of loan closure, the Tribunal observed that the moratorium under Section 14 barred any asset alienation by the suspended board after commencement of CIRP. The change in registration in favour of a third party, even if following issuance of a lender’s NOC, constitutes alienation of assets in violation of Section 14. Further, finding the absence of accounting entries and non-disclosure to the RP, the Tribunal held that it was concealment and diversion of assets by the suspended management.

 

Banks are not legally entitled to make deductions from the share and dividend accounts during the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process, as such deductions amounted to an unlawful recovery, which is prohibited under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code

The Ahmedabad NCLT in the case of Swastik Ceracon Ltd. vs Mehsana Urban Co-Operative Bank Ltd [IA/370(AHM)2025 In CP(IB) 175 of 2018], has held that Mehsana Urban Co-operative Bank was not legally entitled to make deductions from the share and dividend accounts of Swastik Ceracon Limited during the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP), and that such deductions amounted to an unlawful recovery during a period when any recovery action is prohibited under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code. The Tribunal ruled that these deductions were void and directed the bank to return Rs. 56 lacs with 10% interest per annum from the respective adjustment dates.

The Tribunal rejected the bank’s argument on lack of jurisdiction and held that Section 60(5)(c) of the Code entitled the NCLT to adjudicate disputes arising out of the implementation of an approved Resolution Plan. It further held that insolvency set-off can operate only if it is disclosed expressly and recognised during CIRP, and not if asserted unilaterally at a later stage. The Tribunal noted that adjustments carried out by the bank during and after CIRP directly conflicted with the moratorium, depleted the value of the corporate debtor, and undermined the distribution framework under the Code. It emphasised that dividend and share amounts could not be appropriated because shares were protected assets during resolution, and the bank had not disclosed its alleged right.

On the issue of the retained fixed deposit amount, however, the Tribunal differentiated margin money kept against pre-CIRP invoked bank guarantees from share and dividend balances. It held that such margin money is not a protected asset and therefore does not transfer to the Successful Resolution Applicant under the insolvency framework. Accordingly, the bank could retain the margin money amount, but could not justify the deductions made from the share and dividend accounts.


The non-refund of a contractual security deposit, which is provided only as collateral to secure performance obligations, does not constitute “operational debt” under Section 5(21) of the IBC and cannot be used to trigger the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process under Section 9 of the IBC

The New Delhi NCLT in the case of Unique Tobacco Company vs. Pelican Tobacco (India) Pvt Ltd [C.P. (IB) NO.: 860/ND/2024], has held that the non-refund of a contractual security deposit, which is provided only as collateral to secure performance obligations, does not constitute “operational debt” under Section 5(21) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC). Consequently, such a claim cannot be used to trigger the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) under Section 9 of the IBC. 

The Tribunal examined the terms of the Manufacturing Agreement, which expressly defined the Rs. 31 lakh payment as a “fixed security amount” meant for ensuring delivery performance and not as an advance for the supply of goods. It is observed that a claim qualifies as operational debt only when the liability sought to be enforced has a direct nexus with the supply of goods or services. Thus, the security amount had “no direct or indirect connection” with any supply transaction and therefore did not fall within the definition of operational debt under Section 5(21) of the IBC. 


The advance amounts paid under a Memorandum of Understanding for land acquisition and development in Noida cannot be classified as “financial debt” under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 

The New Delhi NCLAT in the case of Airwill JKM Infrastructure Pvt Ltd vs Cadillac Infotech Pvt Ltd [Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 1187 of 2025], has held that advance amounts paid under a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for land acquisition and development in Noida cannot be classified as “financial debt” under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. The tribunal declared that the money was paid as part of a collaborative land development arrangement and not as a loan or financial assistance.

The Tribunal observed that the transaction underlying the MoU was meant for joint development of land rather than for lending, and the developer had paid advances to enable the landowner to acquire the adjoining plot for amalgamation with four existing plots already owned by Cadillac Infotech in Noida. The Tribunal therefore held that the amounts paid by the developer were intended to facilitate the subsequent development of an IT project on the combined land parcel.

In determining the nature of the transaction, the NCLAT reiterated that the “real nature of the transaction” must prevail over the label attached by the parties. Referring to the clauses of the MoU, the Tribunal stated that the amount provided by the developer “was towards the project of development in which ultimately the owner and developer have to receive their percentage of share in the entire saleable built-up area and share in the covered and open parking space”. It further noted that the developer was required to exclusively bear the costs of development and obtain permissions, approvals and sanctions to construct the IT project.

Thus, holding that the advances were not disbursed “against consideration for the time value of money,” the NCLAT concluded that the transaction could not be characterised as a financial debt, as the real nature of the transaction is more akin to a joint venture or development agreement rather than a pure financial lending arrangement. 


Committee of Creditors (CoC) is not prohibited from conducting a second challenge process in a Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP), even after declaring a highest bidder in the first round. The Highest Bidder cannot insist that the CoC should accept its plan.

The NCLAT New Delhi, in the case of Anuj Goyal v/s Amit Chandrakant Shah, RP of Frost International Ltd. [Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 766 of 2025], has reinforced the commercial wisdom of the Committee of Creditors (CoC), and held that the CoC is not prohibited from conducting a second challenge process in a Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP), even after declaring a highest bidder in the first round. The Tribunal observed that there is no specific statutory prescription under the IBC or its regulations that restricts the number of challenge rounds a CoC may conduct. The process, including the challenge mechanism, is guided by the CoC’s objective of maximising value and subject to procedural fairness.

The Clauses of the RFRP cited by the appellant were interpreted by the Tribunal to relate only to the freezing of financials for a particular challenge round and did not limit the CoC’s authority to conduct further processes. Thus, there was no procedural irregularity in allowing a second challenge round. Further, the Tribunal observed that being declared the highest bidder does not confer any legal or enforceable right on a resolution applicant to insist that the CoC accept its plan. The CoC is well within its powers to conduct additional negotiations or challenge rounds. Further, finding that the Resolution Professional had already sent an invitation to the appellant for participation, the Tribunal concluded that the appellant was not prejudiced and had an equal opportunity to participate.


For personal guarantors, the date of default is the date on which the guarantee is invoked rather than the date on which the borrower’s loan account is classified as a Non-Performing Asset (NPA)

The NCLT Mumbai, in the case of Bhavna Ravi Matta [C.P. (IB) No. 1043/MB/2022] dated October 29, 2025, has held that for personal guarantors, the date of default is the date on which the guarantee is invoked rather than the date on which the borrower’s loan account is classified as a Non-Performing Asset (NPA). The Tribunal observed that for personal guarantors, the invocation of the guarantee is the operative trigger for determining limitation, and the SARFAESI demand notice, which called upon the applicant to clear the dues within the prescribed statutory period, clearly signified the invocation of the guarantee. 

The Tribunal observed that proceedings under Section 94 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, operate as an independent statutory mechanism, and the pendency of SARFAESI proceedings cannot legally inhibit a personal guarantor from initiating insolvency proceedings. The Tribunal held that there was nothing on record to suggest that any amount had been paid by the borrower or the guarantor after the issuance of the SARFAESI notice and therefore accepted the computation of debt and default as furnished.

 

REGULATORY UPDATES:

RBI issues Trade Relief measures for safeguarding exporters

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) vide its Press Release dated November 14, 2025, has notified the RBI (Trade Relief Measures) Directions, 2025, to cushion exporters against global headwinds and disruptions in international trade. This set of measures aims to ease debt burdens, extend repayment timelines, and provide greater flexibility in export operations, thereby ensuring the continuity of viable businesses in India’s export sector. These Directions will come into effect from the date of notification itself. 

These Trade Relief Measures shall apply to Commercial Banks, Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks, State Co-operative Banks and Central Co-operative Banks, Non-Banking Financial Companies (including Housing Finance Companies), All-India Financial Institutions, and Credit Information Companies (‘CICs’) (only for credit history safeguard requirement). 

Under the Foreign Exchange Management (Export of Goods and Services) (Second Amendment) Regulations, 2025, the RBI has introduced relaxations, where the exporters now have 15 months (instead of 9 months) to realise and repatriate the full value of goods, software, or services exported from India. Further, exporters receiving advance payments can ship goods within 3 years (up from 1 year), or as per contractual agreement, whichever is later. 

The exporters have been granted a moratorium on term loan instalments and interest on working capital loans due between September 01, 2025 and December 31, 2025. Lenders are allowed to reassess working capital limits or reduce margins during this period to ease liquidity pressure. Interest accrues on a simple basis (no compounding), with accrued interest converted into a funded interest term loan repayable by September 30, 2026. 

The maximum repayment period for pre-shipment and post-shipment export credit has been extended to 450 days for credit disbursed up to March 31, 2026. Exporters who availed packing credit before August 31, 2025, but could not dispatch goods, may liquidate such facilities through other legitimate sources, including domestic sales or substitution with proceeds from another export order. 

Click here to read/ download the original press release 


IBBI enhances compliance & reporting requirements for Resolution Professionals 

The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) vide its Notification F. No. IBBI/2025-26/GN/REG131, dated November 20, 2025, has issued the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Insolvency Resolution Process for Personal Guarantors to Corporate Debtors) (Second Amendment) Regulations, 2025, effective from November 20, 2025. These amendments enhance compliance and reporting requirements for resolution professionals managing insolvency processes of personal guarantors to corporate debtors.

The IBBI has inserted Regulation 23, which mandates the filing of specified Forms along with enclosures on the Board’s electronic platform within stipulated timelines. Forms must be accurate and complete, and any delay in filing, including corrections or updates, will attract a fee of Rs. 500 per Form per month. Resolution professionals are also liable for actions under the Code for failure to submit forms, inaccurate or incomplete information, or delayed filing, including potential refusal to issue or renew their Authorisation for Assignment. 

The amendment strengthens procedural accountability, ensures timely reporting, and provides IBBI with enforcement powers to maintain the integrity of personal guarantor insolvency processes.

Click here to read/ download the original notification 


IBBI issues new framework for appointing Insolvency Professionals, effective January 2026 

The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) has issued a new set of guidelines aimed at streamlining and accelerating the appointment process for Insolvency Professionals (IPs), which will come into force from January 1, 2026. These guidelines mark a significant administrative overhaul intended to reduce delays in assigning Resolution Professionals, Liquidators, and Bankruptcy Trustees in insolvency cases across the country.

According to the guidelines, only professionals with a completely clean regulatory record and a valid Authorisation for Assignment (AFA) throughout the entire empanelment period will be eligible for inclusion. This means that Insolvency Professionals who have any pending disciplinary proceedings before the IBBI or their respective Insolvency Professional Agencies (IPAs), or those convicted by any court within the last three years, will not be considered for empanelment. The Board has clarified that the purpose of this requirement is to ensure that only credible and compliant professionals remain eligible for appointments.

To be included in the panel, every Insolvency Professional must file an Expression of Interest (EOI), which, under the new guidelines, will be treated as an unconditional consent to accept any assignment issued by the Adjudicating Authority. Once empanelled, an IP is expected to honour assignments without refusal. The guidelines specifically state that refusal to act as an Interim Resolution Professional (IRP), Resolution Professional (RP), Liquidator or Bankruptcy Trustee (BT) without sufficient justification will result in removal from the panel for a period of six months. This measure is intended to curb unnecessary refusals that often contribute to delays in commencing insolvency proceedings.

The IBBI will prepare the panel by ranking eligible Insolvency Professionals based on the volume of insolvency assignments they are already handling. Professionals with fewer ongoing assignments will be placed higher on the panel to ensure a fair distribution of workload. In circumstances where two or more professionals achieve the same score under this mechanism, seniority based on their registration date with the Board will determine their order of preference.

The empanelment will be organised on a zone-wise and bench-wise basis. The allocation will be made according to the registered office of the Insolvency Professional, ensuring alignment with the relevant NCLT or DRT benches. Insolvency Professional Entities, however, will be eligible for appointments from any bench in the country. This distinction recognises the wider operational capacity of professional entities compared to individual professionals.

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RBI Initiates UPI–TIPS Integration to Boost India–Eurozone Cross-Border Payments

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) vide its Press Release dated November 21, 2025, has announced interlinking of the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) system with fast payment systems of other jurisdictions to promote cross-border payments. These initiatives are aligned with the G20 Roadmap for enhancing cross-border payments, focusing on cheaper, more efficient, transparent, and accessible remittances.

The RBI and NPCI International Payments Limited (NIPL) have been engaging with the European Central Bank on the initiative to connect UPI with the TARGET Instant Payment Settlement (TIPS), the instant payment system operated by the Eurosystem. Following constructive and sustained engagement, both sides have agreed to start the realisation phase for the UPI-TIPS link.

The proposed UPI-TIPS interlinkage aims to facilitate cross-border remittances between India and the European Union, and is expected to benefit users in both jurisdictions. The RBI and NIPL will continue to collaborate closely with the European Central Bank to operationalise the UPI-TIPS link, including technical integration, risk management and settlement arrangements.

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Legal Updates (Nov 17 – Nov 22, 2025)

Legal Updates (Nov 17 – Nov 22, 2025)

A borrower or guarantor cannot claim the benefit of a One-Time Settlement (OTS) as a matter of right, and this decision to accept or reject an OTS proposal lies within the exclusive commercial discretion of the lending bank

The Bombay High Court in the case of Archana Wani vs. Indian Bank [Writ Petition No. 3766 of 2023] dated October 17, 2025, held that a borrower or guarantor cannot claim the benefit of a One Time Settlement (OTS) as a matter of right. The decision to accept or reject an OTS proposal lies within the exclusive commercial discretion of the lending bank, particularly as banks deal with public money and must act in the interest of financial prudence and public accountability.

The High Court observed that the bank was under no statutory or contractual obligation to accept an OTS proposal or to disclose its internal benchmark for such settlements. The grant of OTS is a matter of policy and commercial discretion, not a legal right enforceable by writ jurisdiction. Further, the relationship between a borrower and a bank is governed by contract, and the Court, under Article 226 of the Constitution, cannot rewrite or modify contractual terms by directing acceptance of reduced settlement amounts, since there was no binding policy or RBI circular mandating the acceptance or disclosure of OTS criteria.

The Court further held that the doctrine of legitimate expectation could not apply in the absence of an established or consistent practice of granting OTS benefits. A borrower cannot create a right based on a mere expectation of leniency, especially when the bank has initiated recovery under special enactments such as the SARFAESI Act and the IBC.

Further, if the bank believes it can recover the entire outstanding amount by enforcing its security or selling the mortgaged property, it is fully justified in rejecting an OTS proposal offering a lesser sum. Since banks manage public funds, they are duty-bound to protect depositors’ interests and ensure responsible recovery of dues; judicial compulsion to accept reduced settlements would be contrary to public interest and fiscal discipline. Accordingly, the Court concluded that the decision whether to grant or reject an OTS must remain within the commercial wisdom of the bank and cannot be subjected to judicial direction.

The ‘Registered Office’ does not establish territorial jurisdiction if no cause of action has arisen at that office, and even if parties have agreed to an exclusive jurisdiction clause, they cannot grant jurisdiction to a Court that otherwise lacks authority over the subject matter

The Delhi High Court in the case of Aryan Infraheight P Limited vs Signature Global India Limited [Arbitration Petition No. 644/ 2024] dated November 18, 2025, has held that even if parties have agreed to an exclusive jurisdiction clause, they cannot grant jurisdiction to a Court that otherwise lacks authority over the subject matter. The exclusion of some Courts’ jurisdiction is allowed only if the Court receiving exclusive jurisdiction already has proper jurisdiction, and the ‘Registered Office’ does not establish territorial jurisdiction if no cause of action has arisen at that office.

The Court clarified that exclusive jurisdiction clauses act as ouster clauses. Reference was made to the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Swastik Gases Private Limited v. Indian Oil Corporation Limited [(2013) 9 SCC 32], where it was held that even if an agreement does not specifically use words like ‘alone’, ‘only’, ‘exclusive’, or ‘exclusive jurisdiction’, the construction of such a clause is unaffected because of the maxim ‘expressio unius est exclusio alterius’, provided there is nothing to the contrary in the agreement.

The Court observed that if the arbitration agreement specifies a “seat” of arbitration, then only the court with jurisdiction over that seat may handle matters related to the arbitration. If the agreement does not specify a seat but does specify a “venue” or “place,” and there are no indications to the contrary, then that “venue or place” will be treated as the juridical seat of arbitration, and only the court at that venue or place will have jurisdiction over arbitration matters. Since, in the present case, there is no designation of seat, place, or venue, the Bench observed that the territorial jurisdiction of the Court will be evaluated according to the principles of Section 20 of the CPC.

The Court noted that the disputes between the parties involve construction contracts given to the Petitioners for projects located in Gurugram, Haryana. Essentially, the disputes concern issues such as breach or non-performance of contracts, plant and machinery, equipment, and non-payment of dues. None of the contracts was executed in Delhi, and no transaction related to the contracts took place there. All project sites, installations, and equipment relevant to the contracts are situated in Gurugram. There is no evidence presented of any part of the contracts being performed in Delhi.

Thus, the Court negated the claim of the Petitioner that the Contract Agreements and Work Orders were executed in Delhi, upon examining the Agreements, which clearly show that they were signed in Gurugram and the stamp duty was paid in Haryana. Hence, no part of the cause of action has arisen in Delhi.

Referring to the Explanation to Section 20 of the CPC, the Court explained that if a corporation (including a company) has a sole or principal office at one place, courts within that jurisdiction will have authority, since the corporation is deemed to carry on its business there by legal fiction. If the corporation has a principal office and also a subordinate office elsewhere, such as a Registered Office in one location and a branch in another, the place for filing will be determined by where the cause of action arises within the local limits, not by the principal place of business.

The Court therefore concluded that it lacks territorial jurisdiction since the Respondent does not operate a business here and no cause of action has arisen in this territory. Further, the Bench also negated the Petitioners’ argument that the Respondent has a bank account in Delhi, used as a basis for complaints under Section 138 of the NI Act, holding it as irrelevant for determining this Court’s territorial jurisdiction. Since the Court lacks territorial jurisdiction, the objection regarding the existence of the arbitration agreements is not addressed.

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If a debt is owed by one person, the bank cannot simply seize money from a joint account held with another person who is not a co-debtor. The bank cannot withdraw pension money from a joint account of a retired employee acting as a loan guarantor to recover a defaulted loan that was only taken by one of the joint account holders

The Orissa High Court in the case of Bharat Chandra Mallick vs Branch Manager, SBI [Writ Petition (C) No. 19648 of 2025] dated October 17, 2025, has held that a bank cannot withdraw pension money from a joint account of retired employee acting as loan guarantor, to recover a defaulted loan that was only taken by one of the joint bank account holders and the other was merely a guarantor. The Court also referred to Section 60(1)(g) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, which exempts government pensions from attachment in execution of a decree to hold that the bank cannot withdraw pension money from a joint account of a retired employee acting as a loan guarantor to recover a defaulted loan that was only taken by one of the joint account holders.

The Court observed that, although it appeared at first glance to be a routine banking dispute, it in fact cut to the core of a larger issue: the protection of pension as a lifeline for survival in old age, and the limits of contractual power when weighed against the constitutional right to livelihood. The Court noted that it was evident from the legal framework that pensionary benefits were accorded special protection, wherein Section 60(1)(g) of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, exempted government pensions from attachment in execution of a decree. The Court further noted that, in the present case, the Bank’s debit of Rs 5 lakh from the petitioner’s account, which contained his pension, had been done without any court order or prior notice, and thus prima facie violated the principle that pension could not be taken except by due process.

The Court emphasised that the fact that the amount was taken from a joint account held by the petitioner and his wife did not legalise the recovery. The Court held that if a debt was owed by one person, the bank could not seize money from a joint account held with another who was not a co-debtor. Further, the Court emphasised that while both the petitioner (guarantor) and his wife (borrower) were liable for the loan, the joint account was treated as a convenient source without distinguishing whose funds were taken. The Court noted that the petitioner was a retiree whose contribution was his pension, which remained protected. Simply because the account was joint did not strip the funds of their pensionary nature.

The Court observed that the recovery process failed basic norms of natural justice. It was undisputed that the Bank had not issued prior notice or obtained consent before debiting the amounts. Further, the Court observed that a unilateral debit from a customer’s account, especially when it consisted of pension money, was an extreme step. The petitioner was entitled to notice and an opportunity to be heard. However, the Court noted that by bypassing any process, the Bank’s action was arbitrary. The Court held that the proper course in case of loan default was to pursue lawful recovery channels, not self-help by dipping into a pension account.

The Court found no indication that the petitioner had acquiesced in the recovery; merely continuing to use the same account for pension credits could not be construed as consent to the Rs 5 lakh deduction. The Court clarified that, while monetary disputes ordinarily fell within the realm of civil courts or tribunals, that did not curtail writ jurisdiction where a public sector bank had acted with manifest illegality, infringing constitutional guarantees. Accordingly, the Court held that the Bank’s action in debiting ₹5 lakh from the petitioner’s joint account was illegal and unsustainable in law. It had violated statutory protections afforded to pension funds and the petitioner’s fundamental right to livelihood under Article 21. Consequently, the Court directed the Bank to reverse the sum of Rs 5 lakh to the petitioner’s account within four weeks. The petitioner was permitted to operate his account freely, and the Bank was restrained from recovering any amount from his pension in the future without adhering to due process.

Enforcement Directorate, under Section 5(1) of the PMLA, can attach a property of equivalent value when the original proceeds of crime obtained by the accused are untraceable, after recording a ‘reason to believe’ that the person is in possession of proceeds of crime and also establish a clear nexus of such proceeds to a scheduled offence.

The Delhi High Court in the case of Directorate of Enforcement vs Prakash Industries [LPA 102/ 2023] dated November 03, 2025, has held that the Enforcement Directorate (ED) under Section 5(1) of the PMLA is empowered to attach a property of equivalent value when the original proceeds of crime obtained by the accused are untraceable. However, before issuing such an order of attachment, the Directorate must necessarily record a ‘reason to believe’ that the person is in possession of proceeds of crime and also establish a clear nexus of such proceeds to a scheduled offence.

The Court observed that the definition of proceeds of crime under Section 2(1)(u) of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA), not only includes the property derived directly through a criminal activity related to the scheduled offence, rather it also includes any property derived indirectly by such a criminal activity. Thus, the primary objective of Section 5 of the PMLA is preventive and protective, in order to preserve the assets that may be subject to dissipation if not confiscated by the agency.

Even if no separate predicate offence is registered in relation to the subsequent act of utilisation of property to acquire funds through a legalised transaction, the classification of the illegal gains used by means of a legal transaction emanating from an illegal means adopted for attaining coal block allocation would still be construed as “proceeds of crime”. This is because the proceeds nevertheless are traceable either directly or indirectly to the original criminal activity relating to a scheduled offence. Additionally, the offence of money laundering, being continuing in nature, is not confined only to the initial act of criminal acquisition but also extends to every process or activity connected with the proceeds, including layering through multiple transactions, integration into the legitimate economy and projection of the acquired wealth as lawful.

The Court observed that if the sum received as a bribe is invested in the share market, which later increases or goes beyond the value of the actual investment owing to market forces or corporate actions, the entire enhanced amount shall constitute proceeds of crime. The appreciation in value does not cleanse or purify the tainted origin, more so since the augmented value is inextricably and indirectly derived from the original illicit source of the bribe. As per Section 3 of the PMLA, not only the tainted property but every process or activity connected with such property falls within the ambit of money laundering and, therefore, even if the share allotment on preferential basis appears to be a “legal transaction” in form, its foundation is inherently rooted in misrepresentation and fraud underlying the core predicate offence enabling the ED to trace and connect such transactions to the proceeds of crime.

The Court further observed that PMLA is a self-contained and comprehensive legislation enacted to prevent money laundering and connected activities, enabling the authorities to combat the problem of money-laundering and processes related thereto, and confiscate proceeds of crime. Even if it is assumed that the Directorate has defaulted in sharing information as mandated under Section 66(2) of the PMLA, it is to be taken into account that the provision nowhere provides for any specific time limit within which the information must be shared”, it also noted. The Court, therefore, concluded that compliance with Section 66(2) of the PMLA is not a condition precedent for issuance of Provisional Attachment Order (PAO), the Directorate is legally justified in attaching the equivalent value of properties under Section 5 of the PMLA, especially when the prerequisites of the attachment have been satisfied.

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Dues under the Employees’ Provident Funds enjoy priority over the claims of secured creditors proceeding under the SARFAESI Act, and the statutory first charge created under the Employee Provident Funds law overrides the “priority” granted to secured creditors in Section 26E of the SARFAESI Act

The Supreme Court in the case of Jalgaon District Central Cooperative Bank vs State of Maharashtra [Special Leave Petition (C) No.27740 of 2011] dated November 20, 2025, has held that the employees’ provident fund dues take precedence over the ‘priority’ rights claimed by banks in the sale of a company’s assets under the SARFAESI Act. Essentially, the dues under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act enjoy priority over the claims of secured creditors proceeding under the SARFAESI Act, and the statutory first charge created under the EPF law overrides the “priority” granted to secured creditors in Section 26E of the SARFAESI Act.

The Court observed that from the proceeds of the sale of the assets, the first charge would be for the dues under the EPF&MP Act, which includes not only the contribution payable but also the interest, penalty and damages, if any, imposed. Hence, the sale proceeds have to be first applied in satisfaction of the dues under the EPF Act and then in satisfaction of the secured debt of the bank.

The Court also observed that Section 11(2) of the EPF & MP Act creates a statutory first charge on the assets of the establishment for any amount due from an employer, be it the employers’ or employees’ contribution, which would include any interest or damages. In that circumstance, the effect of the non obstante clause (in SARFAESI Act), giving precedence over any other law for the time being in force, pales into insignificance.

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If a cheque is given as security for a contract or a loan and the liability arising from that contract or loan crystallises into a legally enforceable debt at a later date, the cheque, even if originally a “security” one, assumes the character of a cheque issued in discharge of that debt under Section 138 of the NI Act

The Delhi High Court in the case of Manmohan Gaind vs Negolice India [CRL.M.C. 1379/2021] dated November 11, 2025, has held that when a cheque is given as security and the liability arising from the contract or loan, crystallizes into a legally enforceable debt at a later date, the cheque assumes the character of a cheque issued in discharge of that debt for the purpose of Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (NI Act).

The Court observed that where a cheque is given as security for a contract or a loan and the liability arising from that contract or loan crystallises into a legally enforceable debt at a later date, the cheque, even if originally a “security” one, assumes the character of a cheque issued in discharge of that debt under Section 138. It was noticed that the Security Cheques are only given to be utilised if, subsequently, during the business transactions, certain liabilities arise which are not fulfilled by the Petitioners.

For an offence under Section 138 of the NI Act to be attracted, the cheque must be for the discharge of a debt or liability, and the debt must be equal to or greater than the amount of the cheque presented. Whether the cheque amount was for the existing liability or an excess amount is a matter of trial and cannot be considered at the stage of summoning.

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Disputes relating to the rate of interest awarded by an arbitrator do not fall within the narrow scope of interference under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act unless the interest is perverse or unreasonable

The Supreme Court in the case of Sri Lakshmi Hotel Pvt Ltd. vs Sriram City Union Finance Ltd. [Civil Appeal No. 13785 of 2025] dated November 18, 2025, has held that a challenge to an arbitral award cannot be sustained merely because a party disputes the rate of interest awarded, unless the interest component is shown to be so unreasonable as to shock the judicial conscience. The Court emphasised that the ‘public policy’ ground under Section 34 is narrowly construed and does not extend to disagreements over commercial interest rates.

The Court reiterated that, following the amendment of Section 34 of the Arbitration Act, the expression “public policy of India” has been assigned a restricted meaning. The statutory scheme mandates interference only where the award contravenes fundamental principles forming the foundation of the legal system, and not merely because one party considers the outcome harsh. Thus, mere disagreement with the interest rate does not fall within the category of harm contemplated by the provision.

On a plain and grammatical construction of clauses (ii) and (iii) of Explanation 1 to Section 34(2)(b) of the Act, 1996 it cannot be said that the imposition of an exorbitant interest in the background of contemporary commercial practices, would be against the fundamental policy of Indian Law, or against the basic notions of morality or justice. As per the principles governing pre-award and post-award interest under Section 31(7) of the Arbitration Act, the arbitrator possesses discretion to determine reasonable interest unless the contract provides otherwise.

Since both the Section 34 and Section 37 courts had concurrently upheld the arbitral findings regarding the commercial nature of the transaction, the execution of agreements, and the agreed rate of interest, the Supreme Court held that it was impermissible to revisit those factual conclusions. The Court also examined the conduct of the appellants, noting continuing defaults, non-payment despite assurances, and the dishonour of the cheque issued towards settlement. It was observed that failure to honour the contractual obligations had significant financial repercussions for the lender, and that commercial risks justified higher interest rates in such transactions.

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A partnership firm has no separate legal recognition in the absence of its partners, and therefore, ‘sleeping partners’ acting through a Power of Attorney holder, cannot avoid their liability under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act

The Allahabad High Court in the case of Sonali Verma vs State of UP [Application U/s 482 No. 8942 of 2025] dated November 19, 2025, has held that a partnership firm has no separate legal recognition in the absence of its partners, and therefore, refused to quash proceedings under Section 138 read with Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act (NI Act) against two persons who claimed to be ‘sleeping partners’ acting through a Power of Attorney holder.

The Court observed that there is an underlying distinct between the partnership firm and the company, and it is a body corporate, whereas the offence committed by the company is differently dealt with and Section 141 of the Act is attracted, and there is no concept of authorised liability of the partners as such. The liability is jointly and severally.

The Court referred to Section 25 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, which says that every partner is liable, jointly with all the other partners and also severally, for all acts of the firm done while he is a partner. Accordingly, the Court concluded that the applicants, being admitted partners under the partnership deed, could not avoid their liability.

When a decree for specific performance does not create or purport to create any right, title or interest in immovable property, an instrument assigning such a decree does not attract compulsory registration

The Supreme Court in the case of Rajeswari vs Shanmugam [Civil Appeal No. 13835 of 2025] dated November 19, 2025, has held that an assignment of a decree for specific performance does not require registration under Section 17(1)(e) of the Registration Act, observing that the decree does not create any right, title or interest in the property. Section 17 of the Registration Act, 1908, provides that “registration is mandatory only for non-testamentary instruments transferring or assigning any decree or order of a Court or any award when such decree or order or award purports or operates to create, declare, assign, limit or extinguish, whether in present or in future, any right, title or interest, whether vested or contingent, of the value of one hundred rupees and upwards, to or in immovable property”. Thus, when the decree itself, which is for specific performance, does not create or purport to create any right, title or interest in any immovable property, the question of registering an instrument assigning such a decree cannot arise.

The Supreme Court examined the nature of a decree for specific performance and reiterated that such a decree does not itself transfer any right or interest in immovable property. The Court referred to the statutory scheme and earlier decisions, noting that title to immovable property passes only upon execution of the sale deed. The Court observed that Section 17(1)(e) applies only where the decree or order “purports or operates” to create, declare, assign, limit or extinguish a right, title or interest in immovable property. Since a decree for specific performance does not have that effect, the Court held that an instrument assigning such a decree does not fall within the scope of Section 17(1)(e).

The Court further stated that an agreement for sale does not create any interest in the property and that the decree for specific performance does not elevate the contractual right into an interest in immovable property. The right under the decree continues to remain a right to seek execution of the sale deed. The Court noted that the personal obligation created by an agreement of sale is described in Section 40 of the Transfer of Property Act as an obligation arising out of a contract and annexed to the ownership of the property, but not amounting to an interest or easement in the property.

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If entities that participated in bid-rigging were cover bidders and were not even present in the relevant market, and their relevant turnover is nil, then their egregious nature of conduct and their repeated participation in illegal practices attract maximum penalty in terms of Section 27(b) of the Competition Act, 2002

The Competition Commission of India (CCI) in the case of Nagrik Chetna Manch, In re [Case No. 50 of 2015] dated November 10, 2025, has held that when entities which participated in bid-rigging were cover bidders and were not even present in relevant market of Solid Waste Management business, and their relevant turnover was nil, then their egregious nature of conduct and their repeated participation in illegal practices, attracts maximum penalty in terms of Section 27(b) of the Competition Act, 2002, i.e. at 10 per cent of their average global turnover, for preceding three financial years was to be imposed upon such entities.

Since entire bid-rigging arrangement had been proven to be at behest of certain individuals who rigged not only one or two, but rather at least seven tenders issued by State Municipal Corporation over a period of two years and got other entities, who were not even involved in business of Solid Waste Processing, to be a part of their bid-rigging arrangement, with sole intent of manipulating impugned tenders and ensure failure of competitive bidding process therein, the CCI, after considering egregious nature of conduct and their repeated participation in illegal practices, imposed on these entities.

The CCI observed that where the determination of ‘relevant turnover’ is not feasible, then the CCI may consider the global turnover of the enterprise concerned, derived from all products and services, for the purpose of determining of amount of penalty. As in the present case, the entities that participated in bid-rigging/collusive bidding arrangement were cover bidders and were not even present in the relevant market of the Solid Waste Management business; their ‘relevant turnover’ in terms of the CCI (Determination of Monetary Penalty) Guidelines, 2024, would be Nil.

At the same time, the CCI clarified that if the determination of penalty amounts on basis of ‘relevant turnover’ leads to an inequitable result creating an anomalous situation that would render objectives of the Competition Act infructuous, then, in terms of Penalty Guidelines, the ‘global turnover’ of entities would be considered for purpose of determination of amount of penalty to be imposed upon them.

Click here to read/ download the original judgment

Legal Updates (Nov 10 – Nov 015, 2025)

Legal Updates (Nov 10 – Nov 15, 2025)

Case Updates:

The absence of a “corporate mind” or a quorate Board of Directors (i.e., a board having a sufficient number of members to form a quorum) will not render the aggrieved party incapable of taking a valid corporate decision to commence or pursue arbitration proceedings, and clever drafting cannot convert what is not an Arbitral Award into an arbitral award. 

The Bombay High Court in the case of Master Drilling India Private Limited vs Sarel Drill & Engineering Equipment India [Commercial Arbitration Petition No. 777 of 2024] dated November 12, 2025, has held that a cleverly drafted challenge under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, cannot transform any Arbitral Order into an Interim Award. Though any breach of Section 174(2) of the Companies Act 2013(which relates to quorum of a board meeting) may attract a sanction rather than automatically invalidating all actions, given the potential impact on every corporate decision and operation, given the multiple complexities involved, the Arbitral Tribunal has appropriately rejected Master Drilling’s absolutist argument for an outright non-suit of Sarel Drill under Section 32 of the Arbitration Act.  

The Court observed that the Arbitral Tribunal appropriately refused to non-suit Sarel Drill merely on the claim of an absence of corporate mind. It is only for the Arbitral Tribunal to examine whether a Board Meeting is necessary to initiate arbitration or whether the individuals who acted had existing authority to do so. Essentially, the Court left it to the Arbitral Tribunal to assess whether a Board Resolution is foundational or merely commemorative, and whether decisions taken by a non-quorate Board could be validated retrospectively once quorum is restored. 

The Court rejected the extreme contention that a company can do nothing until its Board is quorate as unsustainable, and held that the absence of a “corporate mind” or a quorate Board of Directors will not render the aggrieved party incapable of taking a valid corporate decision to commence or pursue arbitration proceedings. If the proposition that the company must necessarily be paralysed is accepted, the company (purportedly without a corporate mind) would never be able to file tax returns, enter into a contract, renew an existing contract, terminate a contract, and even employ any person or taken to its logical length, sign any cheque, whether for a routine payment (say pay cheques of employees) or a non-routine payment (say purchase of vital spare parts or of replacement machinery). Such an approach would harm the company’s stakeholders, for whose protection the quorum stipulations for the Board of Directors have been legislated. The Court observed that had the Parliament intended every act of a company without a quorate Board to be void, the legislation would have expressly provided so, likely to prevent the chaotic consequences that would otherwise arise.

Finding that the order passed by the Arbitral Tribunal cannot be treated as an arbitral award, since it does not constitute a final adjudication terminating any issue or the arbitral proceedings, the Court declared that the invocation of Section 34 of the 1996 Act is misconceived. If the impugned award is recognised as an arbitral award, the next consideration is whether the award is so perverse or implausible that it undermines the very foundation of the decision. Only in such exceptional circumstances, a Court under Section 34 of the 1996 Act, can exercise its jurisdiction to interfere with the arbitral award. The Court referred to Section 19 of the 1996 Act, which specifies that the arbitral tribunal is not bound by the procedural requirements of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, or the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. The parties are given autonomy to determine the procedure to be followed during the arbitration, and in the absence of an agreement, the arbitral tribunal has the discretion to conduct the proceedings in a manner it deems appropriate, subject to the provisions of the Act.  

Click here to read the original judgment

 

Failure of the financial creditor to show that the sum advanced to the corporate debtor was indisputably interest-bearing and the interest was being realised as consideration for the time value of money, then such advances cannot be treated as ‘financial debt’, and shall not have the commercial effect of borrowing

The NCLAT, New Delhi, in the case of Meck Pharmaceuticals and Chemicals (P.) Ltd. vs Accurate Infrabuild (P.) Ltd. [Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 544 of 2024] dated October 29, 2025,  observed that for any debt to be treated as financial debt, the prerequisite is disbursal of money to the borrower for utilisation by the borrower and that the disbursal must be against consideration for the time value of money, even if it is not interest-bearing. As to when a Financial Creditor who has disbursed money to a Corporate Debtor against consideration for time value of money can trigger the insolvency resolution process against the Corporate Debtor, as per the scheme of IBC, that stage arises when a default arises in that a debt which has become due, in fact and in law, but has not been paid in whole or part thereof. 

The Tribunal found that the Appellant had disbursed Rs 1 crore to the account of the Corporate Debtor in 2010, which was not controverted by the Corporate Debtor. However, there was no written contract or agreement between the Appellant and the Corporate Debtor governing the terms and conditions by which the sum was advanced by the Appellant and disbursed to the account of the Corporate Debtor. The Court, however, stated that the requirement of a written financial contract between parties is not a precondition for determining whether any amount disbursed is financial debt or not.

The Tribunal went on to observe that though the expression ‘time value of money’ finds mention in Section 5(8) of the IBC, the term has not been defined in the said enactment. It is well recognised that the most typical example of ‘time value of money’ is in the form of interest charged on the principal amount that has been borrowed. In the present case, to substantiate the fact that the loan was actually interest-bearing, the Appellant has placed the TDS certificates on record to corroborate that the interest amount was paid by the Corporate Debtor. 

However, the Tribunal explained that for the transaction to have been interest-bearing in the true sense, the interest payment should have been paid annually, and by logical corollary, corresponding TDS deductions ought to have been reflected, while emphasising that deduction of TDS for only two years is insufficient to determinatively conclude that interest liability was a quintessential adjunct of the sum disbursed by the Appellant. Since no debt or default has been established, the Tribunal refused to interfere with the order passed by the Adjudicating Authority and dismissed the appeal. 

 

Dishonour of a cheque issued for returning a bribe amount could not be prosecuted under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, as it was not towards repayment of a legally enforceable debt

The Madras High Court in the case of P Kulanthaisamy v. K Murugan and Another [Criminal Appeal (MD)No.758 of 2022] dated October 17, 2025, has held that dishonour of a cheque issued for returning a bribe amount could not be prosecuted under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act as it was not towards repayment of a legally enforceable debt. 

The Court observed that the agreement to secure a job in exchange for money is an agreement that is void ab initio and would fall under the Illustration to Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act. The court thus noted that when a cheque is issued for discharging a debt which was not legally enforceable, the offence under Section 138 would not be attracted.

The Court clarified that the complainant’s case is based on a specific claim that the money was given for securing a TNSTC job, and the cheque was issued to repay this amount; therefore, there is no legally enforceable debt or liability. The court analysed the legal maxim “in pari delicto potior est conditio possidentis” (in equal fault, the condition of the possessor is better) and noted that when parties in the dispute are equally at fault or equally favour an immoral act, the court will not assist either, and the one who possessed the property or benefits of the transaction would retain it.

The court also observed that the agreement between the parties in the present case was a void contract since it was in the nature of illegal gratification and was unlawful. The doctrine of restitution under Section 65 of the Contracts Act would not apply in this case, as it was in respect of agreements, which are discovered to be void at a subsequent stage by either party. Thus, the doctrine could not be invoked when the contract was void ab initio, like in the present case. 

Click here to read the original judgment

 

Consumer forums possess the trappings of a court, and therefore, the proceedings before them clearly fall within the scope of Section 14 of the Limitation Act. Essentially, the proceedings before consumer forums are equivalent to “civil proceedings”, and the time spent bona fide before them can be excluded while computing the limitation period for initiating proceedings before a Commercial Court

The Delhi High Court in the case of Roopinder Singh vs Emaar MGF [RFA(COMM) 389/2024] dated November 04, 2025, held that the consumer forums possess the trappings of a court, and therefore, the proceedings before them clearly fall within the scope of Section 14 of the Limitation Act. Essentially, the proceedings before consumer forums are equivalent to “civil proceedings”, and the time spent bona fide before them can be excluded while computing the limitation period. 

The Court explained that, when viewed as a whole, the appellant’s conduct demonstrated a continuous, bona fide, and diligent effort to pursue his claim before forums that were subsequently found to lack jurisdiction. Therefore, the Commercial Court’s interpretation and application of Section 14 for denying the benefit of time exclusion to the appellant, who has been running from all consumer forums to the commercial courts, is grossly wrong. 

Reference was made to the Apex Court’s ruling in P. Sarathy v. State Bank of India [(2000) 5 SCC 355], where it was held that the term “court” under Section 14 of the Limitation Act is not confined to civil courts, and any authority or tribunal possessing the trappings of a court, that is, one empowered to summon witnesses, examine evidence, and deliver binding decisions, would fall within its ambit. 

The Court observed that the underlying equity of Section 14 of the Limitation Act requires that time spent diligently pursuing a remedy before a wrong forum should be excluded when computing the limitation. The Bench pointed out that the protection under Section 14 applies to suits, appeals, and revisions, and even to a fresh suit filed with court permission after the earlier one failed due to jurisdictional defects. Further, ‘good faith’ under Section 14 does not depend on the result of the proceedings, but on whether the litigant acted honestly, reasonably, and without negligence. 

After reviewing the findings of the Commercial Court and the legal principles under Section 14 of the Limitation Act, the High Court observed that while the lower court had concluded that the appellant lacked due diligence and good faith in pursuing the case before the NCDRC, such a conclusion was not sustainable in light of the true scope and intent of Section 14, which is meant to protect bona fide litigants acting diligently before a forum lacking jurisdiction. 

The Court noted that no consumer forum found any negligence or bad faith on the appellant’s part. Thus, accepting the Commercial Court’s view would imply that a litigant must forgo their statutory right to appeal to avoid being labelled as acting in bad faith. The Court also noted that since the appellant had succeeded before the District Consumer Forum, he had a genuine and bona fide belief that the matter was rightly pursued before the consumer fora.

Lastly, the Court concluded that the appellant’s decision to file a civil suit before the District Court was based on legal advice and in pursuit of a legitimate remedy. Since the appellant is not a lawyer and lacks a legal background, his reliance on such advice, even if erroneous, cannot be construed as a lack of bona fides. The Court emphasised that pursuing a statutory remedy on legal counsel’s advice does not indicate bad faith or negligence. 

Click here to read/ download the Original Judgment

 

Property sellers are not mandatorily required to show mutation or ‘jamabandi/ holding’ proof before registering sale deeds; Registering authorities cannot refuse registration of sale or gift deeds for failure to produce proof of mutation in favour of the seller

The Supreme Court in the case of Samiullah vs State of Bihar [2025 INSC 1292] dated November 07, 2025, has held that the registering authorities cannot refuse registration of sale or gift deeds for failure to produce proof of mutation in favour of the seller. Thus, the Court quashed the amendments to Rule 19 (xvii) and (xviii) of Bihar Registration Rules, 2008 (amended in 2019), which required sellers to provide mutation certificates (Jamabandi) for registering the sale/gift of property. 

After extensively reviewing the legal, administrative, and technological context of property registration in India, the Court noted that these rules exceeded powers under the Registration Act, violated the ‘right to property’ and arbitrarily restricted property transfers, especially since mutation doesn’t confer legal title. 

The Court found that the impugned rules had no basis in Section 69 of the Registration Act, and improperly added a title inquiry to a registration process meant only to record transactions. The requirement unduly restricted property rights, given the incomplete mutation framework. Thus, the mandatory mutation proof for registration was ultra vires, arbitrary, and a violation of the right to property enshrined under Article 300 of the Constitution.

Finding that 66% of civil litigation involves land disputes, the Court observed that the archaic laws had led to fraud, multiple registrations, and litigation. The Court therefore promoted blockchain’s “immutability, transparency, and traceability”, stating that it could revolutionise public trust in property ownership frameworks, make fraud/tampering nearly impossible, and provide a unified, public-access system. 

Additionally, the Court directed the Law Commission to study and recommend how blockchain can be implemented nationwide for land records, including necessary amendments to the Transfer of Property Act, Registration Act, Evidence Act, Stamp Act, and digital/privacy laws. 

Click here to read/ download the original judgment

 

Notifications and Circulars issued by the EPFO for the purposes of ensuring compliance with the PF Scheme in respect of ‘International Workers’, is for purpose of classification between the foreign employee and the Indian employee based on capping in the pay drawn for applicability of the scheme of the Provident Fund Act, 1952; This classification has intelligible differentia to satisfy the test of Article 14 of the Constitution of India

The Delhi High Court in the case of Spice Jet vs Union of India [W.P.(C) 2941/2012] dated November 04, 2025, observed that the purpose of mandating an employee to be a member of a fund/scheme under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, is to provide social security. Hence, the Court held that the classification between the foreign employee and Indian employee based on capping in the pay drawn for applicability of the scheme of the 1952 Act, has some intelligible differentia, to satisfy the test of any State action conforming with Article 14 of the Constitution of India.

WTherefore, while discussing the category of employees who are of foreign origin and with whom India does not have a Social Security Agreement (SSA) on a reciprocal basis or with whom India has not entered into a bilateral comprehensive economic agreement, the Court explained that Constitutional protection as enshrined in Article 14 of the Constitution applies to foreign nationals as well, for the reason that the phrase occurring in Article 14 is not “the citizen”; rather, it is “any person”. Thus, even the foreign nationals, enjoy under Article 14 of the Constitution of India the equality before law and equal protection of laws within the territory of India. However, that right of equality is subject to reasonable classification, which is permissible provided such classification has an intelligible differentia.

The High Court observed that mandating the foreign employees to become member of the provident fund scheme, irrespective of the monthly pay they draw and requiring only those Indian employees to become member of the fund/scheme who are drawing pay below Rs.15,000/- a month, has a rationale based on the economic duress which is caused to the Indian employees, if they are mandated to contribute to the fund/scheme irrespective of quantum of salary they draw, which is absent in case of the foreign employees for the reason that they come to India for employment for shorter period of 2 to 5 years.

The Court emphasised that the modification in the Provident Fund Scheme has been made to implement India’s international treaty obligations, and entering into an international treaty is a sovereign prerogative; Therefore, if such a provision is struck down, that will amount to taking away the legal basis for entering into and applying the SSA. Accordingly, the Court upheld the Notifications and the Circular/ Letters issued by the EPFO for the purposes of ensuring compliance with the PF Scheme in respect of ‘International Workers’. 

Click here to read/ download the Original Judgment

 

Playing dominance in the OTT messaging apps market and compelling expanded user data sharing with Meta without opt-out and creating barriers via network effects and data integration, amounts to abuse of dominant position under section 4(2)(a)(i) and 4(2)(c) of the Competition Act

The NCLAT, New Delhi, in the case of WhatsApp LLC vs. Competition Commission of India [Competition Appeal No. 1 of 2025] dated November 04, 2025, has ruled that the conduct of WhatsApp playing dominance in the OTT messaging apps market in India, and compelling expanded user data sharing with Meta without opt-out and creating barriers via network effects and data integration, amounts to abuse of dominant position under section 4(2)(a)(i) and 4(2)(c) of the Competition Act. 

The Tribunal noted that competition and data-protection laws were complementary, not exclusive, and both could operate simultaneously as they address distinct harms. The privacy laws safeguard personal data, while competition law curbs abuse of dominance through exploitative data practices. Accordingly, mere overlap does not oust CCI’s jurisdiction and its competence to examine competition harms linked with privacy issues.

The Tribunal observed that the CCI’s jurisdiction could not be excluded on the grounds that it was testing competition issues on grounds of privacy and data, and they were entirely outside the realm of a competition regulator and would be covered either by SPDI Rules or DPDP Act or draft DPDP Rules framed thereunder. Thus, the objections of maintainability/ judicial-restraint cannot be based on the claim of repugnancy found between the Competition Act and the DPDPA/IT Rules. 

The Tribunal found that the CCI conducted a detailed assessment of user behaviour, technological features, and market structure, recognising the core market as OTT messaging apps through smartphones, in line with economic realities shaped by consumer preferences and switching costs. Further, the CCI also analysed functional substitutability and proximity of competitors, distinguishing WhatsApp’s position within a distinct digital messaging app market that includes rivals like Telegram and Signal, alongside a complementary online display advertising market, both relevant for assessing dominance and abuse. 

The Tribunal observed that the CCI rightly concluded that WhatsApp holds a dominant position in the OTT messaging apps market in India, with substantial entry barriers and competitive constraints resulting from its market share, network effects, consumer dependence, financial and technological resources, and ecosystem integration. Thus, the Tribunal upheld the CCI’s order holding that WhatsApp’s 2021 Privacy Policy amounted to an abuse of dominance under section 4(2)(a)(i), as it imposed unfair and coercive conditions on users and compelled them to accept the policy on a ‘take-it-or-leave-it’ basis by threatening loss of service access, thereby vitiating free consent. 

 

Regulatory Updates:

IBBI issues Standard Undertaking to speed release of ED-Attached Assets under PMLA

The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) vide its Circular No. IBBI/CIRP/87/2025, dated November 04, 2025, has issued an advisory to Insolvency Professionals (IPs) addressing situations where the assets of corporate debtors are attached by the Enforcement Directorate (ED) under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA). The IBBI noted that in several insolvency cases, the assets of corporate debtors remain under attachment by the ED. It is observed that reclaiming such assets can “significantly enhance the value of the corporate debtor,” leading to higher realisations for stakeholders.

The Circular directs insolvency professionals to file applications before Special Courts under Sections 8(7) or 8(8) of the PMLA seeking restitution of attached assets. To facilitate quicker adjudication of such requests, the IBBI, in consultation with the ED, has also prescribed a standard undertaking to accompany each application. Under this undertaking, insolvency professionals must ensure that the restituted assets will not be transferred, sold, or otherwise dealt with in a manner that benefits any ineligible persons under Section 29A of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) or individuals accused in ED or predicate offences.

The circular requires IPs to maintain strict reporting discipline once restitution is granted. They must submit quarterly status reports to the Special Court detailing the condition and usage of the restituted assets, the steps taken for their monetisation, the details of distribution among stakeholders, and any sale or transfer of such assets. Additionally, insolvency professionals must disclose all ED-attached properties in the Information Memorandum or auction notices issued during the CIRP or liquidation. If new details emerge later, these must be promptly updated in subsequent filings.

To ensure transparency and cooperation, IPs are required to extend full assistance to the ED in its investigations. This includes providing information on the (i) Preferential, undervalued, fraudulent, or extortionate (PUFE) transactions; (ii) The composition and voting share of the Committee of Creditors (CoC); and (iii) Details of the Successful Resolution Applicant (SRA) or bidder, along with relevant NCLT orders. Where the ED seeks access to documents, IPs must supply them promptly. However, commercially sensitive materials, such as valuation reports or resolution plans, may be shared only after the ED acknowledges the sensitivity in writing.

Click here to read/download the Original Circular

 

RBI updates Repo Repurchase Transactions Directions to include Municipal Debt Securities

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) vide its Master Direction – Repurchase Transactions (Repo) Directions, 2025, No. RBI/FMRD/2025-26/142 dated November 11, 2025, has updated the 2018 framework to include Municipal Debt Securities as eligible collateral for repo and reverse repo transactions. 

The Directions apply immediately to repos conducted on recognised stock exchanges, electronic trading platforms, and over-the-counter markets, while excluding Liquidity Adjustment Facility and Marginal Standing Facility transactions. They define eligible securities, participants, tenors, tri-party repo mechanisms, trading and reporting requirements, settlement procedures, pricing, haircuts, accounting, and regulatory compliance. 

Notably, government securities, corporate bonds, commercial papers, certificates of deposit, debt ETFs, and now municipal debt securities can serve as collateral. Participants include regulated entities, listed corporates, unlisted companies with government-issued special securities, and All India Financial Institutions. 

The Directions also standardise tri-party repo roles, trading processes, and reporting obligations, superseding all prior circulars and guidelines on repo transactions, thereby providing a consolidated, modernised regulatory framework for India’s repo market. 

Click here to read/ download the Original Master Direction

 

MeitY notifies DPDP Rules, 2025, with cross-border data restriction to safeguard data sovereignty and prevent casual offshore transfers

The Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Rules 2025, implemented under the authority of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act 2023, represent a significant update in India’s data protection framework. These rules were finalised and notified by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) on 13 November 2025, following a rigorous legislative process that started with the draft rules’ public release on 3 January 2025.

Legislative Process and Timeline

The journey of the DPDP Rules began with the publication of the Draft Rules on 3 January 2025 in the Official Gazette of India. This step was a statutory requirement under sub-section (1) of section 40 of the DPDP Act, 2023. The draft rules were circulated to invite public feedback, objections, and suggestions from all stakeholders likely to be impacted. The government allotted a window for receiving these responses, fostering transparency and public participation in shaping the final regulation.

Following a deliberation on the feedback received from diverse stakeholders throughout this consultation phase, the Ministry finalised and notified the Rules in the Official Gazette of India dated 13 November 2025. Notably, the Rules provide for a phased implementation approach: certain provisions took effect immediately upon notification, others after one year, and some after eighteen months.

As far as the application is concerned, Rules 1, 2 and 17-21 are applicable onwards 13 November; Rule 4 (regarding Consent Managers) will be applicable onwards one year from 13 November; and Rules 3, 5 to 16-21 will be applicable onwards eighteen months from 13 November. This phased implementation approach aims to give data fiduciaries adequate time to comply while safeguarding personal data effectively.

 

Key Provisions

The DPDP Rules comprise 23 substantive rules organised to create a coherent regulatory architecture. The rules open with foundational provisions: 

Rules 1 to 2 establish short title, commencement dates, and essential definitions, including key terms like “techno-legal measures,” “user account,” and “verifiable consent.” 

Rule 3 mandates that notices provided by Data Fiduciaries to Data Principals be clear, independent, and sufficiently detailed to enable informed consent. The notice must itemise the specific personal data processed, specify purposes, and provide accessible links to withdraw consent or exercise data subject rights.

Rule 4 governs Consent Manager registration and obligations. Part A of the First Schedule outlines conditions for registration, including incorporation in India, minimum net worth of two crore rupees, and independent certification of interoperable platforms. Part B details obligations, requiring Consent Managers to maintain consent records for at least seven years, act in a fiduciary capacity, avoid conflicts of interest with Data Fiduciaries, and publish transparency information. The Board shall have the power to suspend or cancel the registration of the Consent Manager after following the prescribed procedure. 

Rule 5 addresses the processing of personal data by the State and its instrumentalities for the provision of subsidies, benefits, services, and licenses, requiring adherence to standards specified in the Second Schedule.

Rule 6 prescribes reasonable security safeguards, including encryption, access controls, anomaly monitoring, data backups, and retention of logs for one year.

Rule 7 establishes a two-tiered breach notification framework: immediate notification to affected Data Principals in plain language, such as nature, extent and timing of breach consequences thereof, etc., followed by detailed notification to the Data Protection Board within seventy-two hours.

Rule 8 specifies timeframes for data erasure based on Data Fiduciary class and processing purpose, as detailed in the Third Schedule. E-commerce entities, gaming intermediaries, and social media platforms holding two crore, fifty lakh, and two crore registered users, respectively, must erase data three years after the Data Principal’s last interaction, unless otherwise required by law.

Rules 9 to 11 address transparency and vulnerable populations. Rule 9 requires the publication of the Data Protection Officer or designated contact information. Rules 10 and 11 establish verifiable consent mechanisms for children and persons with guardians, leveraging identity verification through government-issued tokens and Digital Locker services.

Rule 12 provides exemptions from parental consent requirements for specific Data Fiduciary classes (healthcare providers, educational institutions, crèches) and particular purposes (health protection, educational tracking, safety monitoring).

Rule 13 imposes stringent obligations on Significant Data Fiduciaries: annual Data Protection Impact Assessments and independent audits, algorithmic risk assessments, and restrictions on cross-border transfer of personal data classified by a government committee.

Rules 14 to 16 guarantee Data Principal rights, encompassing means of exercising access, correction, and deletion rights; a ninety-day grievance redressal window; transfer of data outside India and exemptions for research, archival, and statistical processing consistent with Second Schedule standards.

Rules 17 to 22 address administrative mechanics: appointment of Data Protection Board members through Search-cum-Selection Committees, compensation, digital office functioning enabling virtual proceedings, and appeal provisions to the Appellate Tribunal with digital filing requirements.

Rule 23 empowers the Central Government to call for information from Data Fiduciaries and intermediaries for purposes specified in the Seventh Schedule, including sovereign security, and notified government functions, with confidentiality protections where disclosure threatens State interests.

 

Key Changes from Previous Legislation

1. Introduction of Consent Managers as Regulated Intermediaries: The DPDP Rules introduce Consent Managers, representing a conceptual shift from traditional consent management. Unlike historical frameworks focusing on consent as a binary transaction between Data Fiduciary and Data Principal, the Rules embed Consent Managers as trusted intermediaries managing consent lifecycle events. This architecture theoretically decouples consent management from commercial incentives, potentially reducing conflicts of interest. By mandating financial net worth thresholds and independent platform certification, the framework aims to ensure stability and credibility.

However, the minimum net worth requirement of two crore rupees, while protecting against fly-by-night operators, may inadvertently create barriers to entry for innovative fintech or tech startups attempting to enter the consent management space. Additionally, the obligation to act in a fiduciary capacity while maintaining financial viability remains untested, and conflicts could emerge if Consent Managers face commercial pressures to prioritise data flows or face deregistration for regulatory non-compliance. 

The framework would benefit from clearer guidance on fiduciary duty limits, particularly regarding scenarios where Data Principals’ consent preferences conflict with Data Fiduciaries’ processing needs. Establishing a dispute resolution mechanism between Consent Managers and regulated parties could pre-empt potential conflicts.

2. Phased Implementation Architecture: The previous draft rules were expected to take effect uniformly; the 2025 Rules adopt a staggered enforcement model, with eighteen-month timelines for core provisions. This pragmatic approach recognises operational realities. Organisations require time to redesign consent collection mechanisms, audit existing data processing, implement technological safeguards, and train personnel. The phased timeline mitigates disruption while ensuring regulatory coherence.

The eighteen-month delay for Rules 3, 5 to 16, and 22 creates a compliance vacuum. During this period, Data Fiduciaries lack legal certainty regarding standards for notices, security safeguards, and breach protocols, potentially incentivising status quo behaviour rather than proactive alignment with the new regime. Organisations with internal momentum may exceed regulatory minimums; those with limited resources may delay investments pending rule implementation.

The Data Protection Board should issue guidance or interpretive circulars during the transition period, signalling expected compliance trajectories and best practices. This would provide regulatory clarity without creating binding enforcement obligations.

3. Framework for Parental Consent for Children: Rule 10 and the Fourth Schedule establish detailed mechanisms for verifying parental consent for children’s data processing, incorporating government-issued identity tokens and Digital Locker services. The framework addresses legitimate child protection imperatives. By requiring age verification through authoritative sources (government entities or Digital Locker providers), the Rules aim to prevent adults from falsely claiming parental authority and accessing children’s accounts. The ability for parents to verify identity through multiple channels, be it pre-existing platform accounts or government-issued tokens, offers flexibility.

The reliance on government identity infrastructure assumes near-universal Digital Locker adoption and seamless interoperability between Data Fiduciaries and Digital Locker providers. For millions of Indian children lacking access to government-issued identity tokens or parental Digital Locker accounts, this may create de facto exclusions from platforms requiring such verification. Moreover, the four illustrative scenarios in Rule 10 suggest complexity that could overwhelm smaller platforms lacking sophisticated identity verification systems. Another structural barrier to this implementation is the limitations on digital know-how and the accessibility of infrastructure.

The Data Protection Board should publish standardised templates and APIs for identity verification integration, reducing implementation friction. A grace period or safe harbour for good-faith parental consent verification attempts could encourage compliance while the technical systems mature and awareness spreads.

4. Significant Data Fiduciary Obligations and Cross-Border Data Restrictions: Rule 13 imposes mandatory annual Data Protection Impact Assessments and audits for Significant Data Fiduciaries, alongside algorithmic risk assessments and restrictions on cross-border transfers based on government committee recommendations. This represents a material tightening of the fist compared to prior expectations. By mandating impact assessments and independent audits, the Rules create accountability checkpoints, potentially surfacing systemic risks and harms before they metastasise. The cross-border data restriction, contingent on government committee deliberation, safeguards data sovereignty and prevents casual offshore transfers.

The vagueness surrounding “Significant Data Fiduciary” classification, which is dependent on government notification rather than defined within the Rules themselves, creates regulatory uncertainty. Entities may not know if they fall within its scope until notified, hindering compliance planning. Additionally, the government committee tasked with identifying restricted data categories lacks fixed composition or procedural transparency requirements. This could lead to opaque determinations unconstrained by public input, creating opportunities for arbitrary or strategic classifications. For multinational companies operating in India, such opacity makes compliance planning nearly impossible.

The framework should establish objective criteria for Significant Data Fiduciary classification (e.g., processing volume, data sensitivity, user count) rather than relying on open-ended notification. The government committee should issue published determinations with reasoned justifications for data transfer restrictions, allowing affected entities to understand and respond to rationales.

5. Data Breach Notification Timelines and Board Reporting: Rule 7 mandates breach notification to the Data Protection Board within seventy-two hours of awareness, accompanied by detailed information regarding the nature, scope, remedial measures, and affected individual notifications. The seventy-two-hour window balances investigation time with victim protection. Unlike more punitive frameworks penalising delayed disclosure, this grace period acknowledges the operational realities of breach investigation while still prioritising affected individuals’ right to timely information.

The phrase “without delay” in communicating with Data Principals, absent a defined timeline, creates ambiguity. Organisations may interpret this permissively, especially in complex breaches requiring weeks of forensic investigation. Additionally, the requirement to report “broad facts related to events, circumstances and reasons leading to the breach” presumes sophisticated breach investigation capabilities. For smaller organisations or those operating distributed systems, determining root cause within seventy-two hours may be infeasible, creating compliance dilemmas.

The Board should establish a tiered reporting framework: initial notification within 72 hours with available information, followed by supplementary updates as the investigation proceeds. This would incentivise rapid disclosure without penalising organisations discovering evolving breach scope.

6. Data Retention and Erasure Timelines: Rule 8 and the Third Schedule specify that e-commerce entities, gaming intermediaries, and social media platforms must erase user data three years after the Data Principal’s last interaction, with a minimum one-year retention for logs. This represents a principled approach to data minimisation and retention proportionality. By linking erasure to user inactivity rather than maintaining indefinite data silos, the Rules encourage ongoing data governance and reduce exposure surface area.

The three-year timeline may conflict with financial or regulatory record-keeping requirements. For financial services platforms (often classified as e-commerce), banking regulation may mandate seven-year retention of transaction records. The Rules create potential tension between DPDP erasure timelines and sectoral regulations, leaving organisations navigating conflicting obligations. Additionally, the one-year log retention requirement for forensic and detection purposes, while reasonable in principle, demands substantial storage infrastructure for high-volume platforms processing billions of transactions.

The Framework should explicitly provide that DPDP retention requirements yield to other applicable laws, with clear guidance on hierarchy. Additionally, technical guidance on efficient log anonymisation and summarisation could reduce storage burdens while preserving forensic utility.

 

Key Takeaways

The Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025, reflect India’s ambition to establish a world-class data protection regime balancing individual privacy, organisational operability, and State interests. The framework’s achievements (particularly the Consent Manager model, vulnerable population protections, and phased implementation) signal regulatory maturity. 

Moving forward, the Data Protection Board should prioritise transparent guidance, procedural clarity, and stakeholder engagement during the eighteen-month transition period. Clear standards and published criteria/ guidance will go a long way in transforming these rules from aspirational principles into a coherent, trustworthy regulatory framework: one that genuinely protects individuals while enabling innovation and organisational compliance.

Click here to read/ download the Original DPDP Rules, 2005

 

Legal Updates (Nov 3 – Nov 08, 2025)

Legal Updates (Nov 3 – Nov 08, 2025)

Mere use of the term “arbitration” in a clause is not sufficient to mandate reference to arbitration unless the parties clearly intended to resolve their disputes through arbitration

The Supreme Court in the case of M/s Alchemist Hospitals Ltd. v. M/s ICT Health Technology Services India Pvt Ltd. [2025 INSC 1289] dated November 6, 2025, has held that clauses of the Software Implementation Agreement between the parties did not constitute a valid arbitration agreement under Section 7 of the Arbitration Act, as it lacked the essential conditions of a binding arbitral process.

The arbitration clause in the agreement was as follows:

Any dispute, controversy or claim arising out of or relating in any way to the Agreement/the relationship, including without limitation, any dispute concerning the construction, validity, interpretation, enforceability or breach of the Agreement, shall be resolved by arbitration through senior management comprising respective Chairmen of the two parties (Arbitrators). Should the dispute not be resolved within fifteen (15) days after arbitration, the complaining party shall seek remedies through the courts of law. The demand for arbitration should be made within a reasonable time (maximum 60 days) after the dispute or matter in question has arisen.”

The Court observed that mere use of the word ‘arbitration’ in a clause is not decisive unless the clause reflects an intention to submit disputes to a binding adjudicatory process, and emphasised that the clause lacked the essential elements of an arbitration agreement, including finality, binding effect, and recourse to a neutral adjudicator.

The Court noted that individuals designated as “arbitrators” under the clause are the respective Chairmen of the parties themselves, which made the mechanism more akin to an internal settlement attempt than an independent arbitral process. Ordinarily, arbitration contemplates reference to a neutral third party. Thus, finding no intent between the parties to submit disputes to arbitration, the Court held that the clauses did not qualify as an arbitration agreement under Section 7 of the Arbitration Act.

Please click here to read/ download the original judgment


Imposition of interest retrospectively, or without compliance with the prescribed statutory procedure, would not merely constitute a procedural irregularity but a substantive violation of constitutional guarantees under Articles 14, 19, 21, 265, and 300A of the Constitution of India

The Delhi High Court in the case of Competition Commission of India vs Geep Industries [LPA 727/2024] dated November 01, 2025, has held that any attempt by the CCI to impose interest retrospectively, or without compliance with the prescribed statutory procedure, would not merely constitute a procedural irregularity but a substantive violation of constitutional guarantees under Articles 14, 19, 21, 265, and 300A of the Constitution of India. Further, the levy of interest without the statutory foundation of a valid demand notice would offend both the rule of law and the constitutional prohibition against the deprivation of property without lawful authority.

The Court stated that the imposition of interest on the penalty that is recoverable is contingent upon and triggered by the non-compliance with the Demand Notice, as expressly specified in the Competition Commission of India (Manner of Recovery of Monetary Penalty) Regulations, 2011, and thus, the principle of restitution cannot be invoked in a manner such as to give retrospective operation to the triggering event, namely the Demand Notice itself.

The Court observed that issuance of a demand notice under Regulation 3 and the consequent imposition of interest for default under Regulation 5 form part of a sequential and mandatory statutory process. These provisions nowhere empower the CCI to impose interest retrospectively or from a date preceding the valid service of a demand notice. Since these procedural requirements are both mandatory and chronological, they must be followed in that precise manner alone, and any deviation therefrom renders the levy of interest legally unsustainable.

The Court further observed that no single provision under the Competition Act or the 2011 Regulations authorises the automatic or mandatory accrual of interest merely upon the expiry of the period stipulated in the penalty order. On the contrary, Regulation 3 expressly mandates the issuance of a demand notice in Form I, and interest under Regulation 5 accrues only upon failure to make payment within the time specified in such notice.

Therefore, the Court deprecated the action of the CCI in not issuing a notice to the respondents in Form I, as mandated under Regulation 3 of the 2011 Regulations, before imposing the interest upon the penalty, which is in complete defiance of Regulation 3(2) which categorically provides that the 30-day period for payment shall begin “from the date of service of the demand notice to the enterprise.” Once it is established that no demand notice was ever issued to the respondents, the question of any default in payment does not arise.

Please click here to read/ download the original judgment


The rewriting of the contract by the Arbitral Tribunal in contravention of Section 28(3) of the Arbitration Act is vitiated by patent illegality 

The Calcutta High Court in the case of Kolkata Metro Rail Corporation Limited vs. ITD-ITD Cem Joint Venture [AP-COM No. 381 of 2024] dated October 31, 2025, has held that the arbitral tribunal acted in violation of fundamental principles of law by relying on its own professional knowledge instead of tangible evidence, and by applying ‘double standards’ in assessing expert reports filed by the two parties. Thus, the Court set aside the arbitral award passed against the Kolkata Metro Rail Corporation Limited (KMRCL) in its dispute with ITD-ITD Cem Joint Venture, holding that the award was vitiated by perversity, bias, and patent illegality.

On the applicability of the Evidence Act, the High Court held that Section 45 of the Evidence Act has no application in arbitration proceedings since Section 19 of the Arbitration Act, 1996, exempts the arbitral tribunal from strict adherence to the rules of evidence. However, even under such flexibility, the tribunal was bound to assess the evidence on record fairly and uniformly, something it failed to do.

The Court noted that the tribunal had substituted its own professional engineering knowledge for the evidence presented. The tribunal’s reliance on its “engineering point of view” was found to be violative of judicial neutrality. Once appointed as arbitrators, the members were required to adjudicate solely based on material evidence, and importing personal expertise hits at the very foundation of the fundamental policy of Indian law.

The Court held that the tribunal violated Section 18 of the Arbitration Act by accepting the pre-retrieval expert reports produced by ITD, while rejecting the post-retrieval reports of KMRCL. The Court observed that the delay in producing these reports was justified since the Tunnel Boring Machine (TBM) had to be retrieved in pieces over a long period. Discarding these reports on the grounds of delay or authorship was held to be arbitrary and a case of double standards. This unequal treatment strikes at the root of party equality and constitutes patent illegality.

The Court also observed that the tribunal ignored vital clauses of the General and Special Conditions of Contract that squarely placed responsibility for safety, stability, and site operations on the contractor. The contract made it clear that the contractor bore all risks irrespective of the Engineer’s approval. By shifting liability onto KMRCL, the tribunal had “rewritten the contract” in contravention of Section 28(3) of the Arbitration Act. The Court also struck down the tribunal’s declaratory award recognising ITD’s entitlement to future and unquantified monetary claims.


Proceedings under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, which presuppose a validly issued cheque, cannot be sustained in circumstances of no valid drawer or account-holder existing in law

The Delhi High Court in the case of Krishan Lal Gulati vs State of NCT of Delhi [Criminal M.C. 7534/2023] dated October 08, 2025, has held that once a company is struck off and stands dissolved, it loses its juristic personality, rendering any act done on its behalf void ab initio unless the company is restored under Section 252 of the Companies Act. Consequently, a cheque issued in the name of or by such a dissolved company cannot be treated as a legally enforceable instrument, since no valid drawer or account-holder exists in law.

Resultantly, the Court held that proceedings under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, which presuppose a validly issued cheque, cannot be sustained in circumstances of no valid drawer or account-holder existing in law. Thus, continuation of the trial would serve no legal purpose when the complainant company itself has ceased to exist, as no criminal prosecution can be maintained by or against a dissolved entity.

The Court found that the cheques in question, the subsequent legal notices, and the complaints filed under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, are all actions that occurred after the company’s dissolution. This sequence clearly indicates that the company was non-existent in law at the time of these transactions and, therefore, could not have validly participated in commercial dealings or maintained bank accounts.

Please click here to read/ download the original judgment 


Every right of an investor to participate in the management and governance of a joint venture company cannot be converted into an obligation to participate in the management and treatment of a right, as an obligation renders the arbitration award contrary to the contract

The Bombay High Court in the case of Rakesh S. Kathotia vs Milton Global Ltd. [Arbitration Petition No. 544 of 2018] dated November 03, 2025, has clarified that every right of an investor to participate in the management and governance of a joint venture company cannot be converted into an obligation to participate in the management. When an investor invests in a company, he contracts certain rights, and it is completely bestowed on him whether he wants to enforce or waive them.

The dispute at hand is a case of firm findings by the Arbitral Tribunal that one party to the Joint Venture Agreement (JVA) blatantly diverted the business away, wrongly seeking to justify it on the grounds of abandonment, and even raising the objection of limitation, all of which were firmly put down by the Arbitral Tribunal. Yet, the Tribunal victimised the other party by holding that the victim itself needs to be blamed for breach of its rights by not participating in the JVA, and that too when adjudicating a cause of action seeking intervention for that very breach.

The Court noted that on one hand, the Arbitral Tribunal had firmly held that the Vaghani Group had “miserably failed” to show abandonment of the JVA by the Subhkam Group, by ruling that acquiescence is neither pleaded nor synonymous with abandonment. In the same breath, the Arbitral Tribunal has equated the contractual rights of the Subhkam Group with their contractual obligations, which is completely untenable and an implausible view.

While stating that the Arbitral Tribunal had wrongly imported a public law concept of “power coupled with duty” into the domain of private contract, the Court explained that in matters of public law, when legislation provides for a discretionary action on the part of a public authority, it is with a certain legislative objective in mind. On the other hand, in a matter of private contract, the rights and obligations have no wider public interest considerations, and the parties are presumed to contract rights in their own enlightened self-interest. Essentially, the Court pointed out that it is the contracting party’s sovereign and autonomous power to act upon a right or to trust the counterparty by not insisting on enforcing the right.

A Court also observed that “the findings of the Arbitral Tribunal, namely, of failure to prove abandonment; of inability to allege acquiescence; of every moment of conducting competing business being a continuing tort; and yet holding that the tort is not an actionable tort because the party at the receiving end of the tort had purportedly not complied with an obligation, in the teeth of such “obligation” actually being a “right”, are mutually destructive, is writ large on the face of the Impugned Award”.

The Court emphasised that returning an implausible finding that a right is an obligation, the Arbitral Tribunal wrongly denied specific relief and damages, in the teeth of the other findings, which would shock the conscience of any reasonable person applying commercial common sense. Essentially, what has happened is that a party firmly found to have indulged in abject contumacious conduct appears to have been allowed to get away with no consequences whatsoever by the Arbitral Tribunal.

Therefore, the Court concluded that the treatment of a right as an obligation renders the award contrary to the contract. However, while refusing to set aside the award, the Bench directed the parties to agitate their disputes afresh.

Please click here to read/ download the original judgment 


The power of the CERC to refer a dispute involving generating companies or transmission licensee for arbitration prevails over the referral powers of a Court or authority other than the CERC, under Sections 8 or 11 of the Arbitration Act

The Delhi High Court in the case of Renew Wind Energy vs Solar Energy Corporation of India [O.M.P.(I) (COMM.) 213/2025] dated November 03, 2025, has held that the power of the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) to refer a dispute involving generating companies or transmission licensee for arbitration prevails over the referral powers of a Court or authority other than the CERC, under Sections 8 or 11 of the Arbitration Act. The Court added that the CERC has the exclusive power and prerogative under Section 79(1)(f) of the Electricity Act to refer disputes concerning generating companies or transmission licensee for arbitration.

The Court rejected the petitioner company’s submission that CERC’s jurisdiction is attracted only when a dispute relates to the tariff, and observed that the CERC has the power to refer a dispute, which falls outside the scope of Section 79(1)(a)-(d), for arbitration when there exists an arbitration clause in the agreement involving generating companies or transmission licensee. This power needs to be mandatorily exercised, and the party seeking the referral has, in such a situation, a right to be referred for arbitration.

Additionally, the Court also pointed out that the instructing and briefing counsels/law firms are expected to diligently and sincerely verify authorities before they cite them in a Court. Reliance upon a decision that is under review or appeal, without disclosing such pendency, amounts to a lack of candour to the Court and may mislead the adjudicatory process. The Court observed that the justice delivery system functions on mutual trust between the Bar and the Bench. Each stakeholder, the litigant, the counsel, and the Court, bears a shared responsibility towards upholding its integrity. Any lapse diminishes confidence in the system as a whole.

Please click here to read/ download the original judgment 


A consumer complaint before the District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission is not maintainable once the insolvency proceedings have been admitted and a moratorium is in effect under the IBC

The Bombay High Court in the case of Srei Equipment Finance Limited vs. Rajesh Bajirao Khandewar [Criminal Writ Petition No. 41 of 2025] dated October 17, 2025, has held that a consumer complaint before a District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (DCDRC) is not maintainable once the insolvency proceedings of a corporate debtor have been admitted and a moratorium is in effect under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC).

The Court examined the relevant provisions of Sections 14 and 31 of the IBC and noted that once a moratorium is declared, “the institution of suits or continuation of pending suits or proceedings against the corporate debtor, including execution of any judgment, decree or order in any court of law, tribunal, arbitration panel or other authority shall be prohibited.”

The Court also observed that Section 31 further clarifies that once a resolution plan is approved by the adjudicating authority, it “shall be binding on the corporate debtor and its employees, members, creditors, including the Central Government, any State Government or any local authority, guarantors, and other stakeholders involved in the resolution plan.”

The Court stated that the company has not been added as a party to the complaint/application made before the District Consumer Commission, and therefore, the said order cannot have a binding effect on the company. Further, allowing the continuation of the consumer proceedings would “render the initiation of proceedings under the IBC redundant. While acknowledging that the respondent was a victim who had paid substantial instalments and lost possession of the machine, the Court held that “law does not permit the respondent to lodge or institute any proceedings against the petitioner company.”

The Court held that a complaint cannot be treated as one confined to deficiency in service, as the Commission directed return of the JCB machine upon payment of dues, which is as good as a monetary decree falling within the definition of ‘property’ under Section 3(27) of the IBC, and therefore, the proceedings were barred under Section 14 of the IBC.


Legal Updates (Oct 27 – Nov 01, 2025)

Legal Updates (Oct 27 – Nov 01, 2025)

Case Updates:
Paid-up money on shares being ‘share capital’ does not constitute debt, and hence claim for redemption of preference shares cannot trigger insolvency proceedings under Section 7 of the IBC

While clarifying that holders of Cumulative Redeemable Preference Shares (CRPS) cannot be treated as financial creditors under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC), the Supreme Court in the case of EPC Constructions India Limited v. Matix Fertilizers and Chemicals Limited [2025 INSC 1259] dated October 28, 2025, has held that preference shareholders are investors and not lenders, and their claims for redemption shall not constitute a ‘financial debt’ which is capable of triggering insolvency proceedings under Section 7 of the IBC.

The Court observed that there is a statutory distinction between share capital and debt, and hence, the provisions of the IBC cannot be invoked as a recovery mechanism for equity investments, even if the redemption period for preference shares has expired. Essentially, the preference share capital remains part of the company’s equity structure until duly redeemed in accordance with Section 55 of the Companies Act and cannot, by default, metamorphose into a debt obligation.

The Court also observed that a debt would be a financial debt if it is raised under any other transaction, including any forward sale or purchase agreement having the commercial effect of borrowing, and therefore, the paid-up amounts towards shares do not have the character of debt. Reference was made to Section 55 of the Companies Act, 2013, as per which the shares could be redeemed only out of the profits or with any amount kept apart for dividends.

The Court added that Accounting Standards (AS 32) prescribe that a preference share that provides for mandatory redemption by the issuer for a fixed or determinable amount at a fixed or determinable future date, or gives the holder the right to require the issuer to redeem the instrument at or after a particular date for a fixed or determinable amount, is a financial liability.

However, the Court concluded that the treatment in the accounts due to the prescription of accounting standards will not be determinative of the nature of the relationship between the parties as reflected in the documents executed by them. Further, the IBC has its own prerequisites that a party needs to fulfil, and unless those parameters are met, an application under Section 7 will not pass the initial threshold.

Click here to read the original judgment

 

Non-communication of rejection of policy within the period prescribed is not a mere irregularity, but a violation of statutory duty under IRDAI Guidelines, and an insurer cannot simply refund premiums after the death of the insured to deny the policy benefits once there is a clear indication of acceptance of the insurance proposal

The Kerala High Court in the case of HDFC Life Insurance Company vs Jyothi Madhavan U. [Writ Petition (C) No. 42110 of 2024] dated October 28, 2025, held that the very life insurance policy was taken to secure a housing loan in the event of unforeseen circumstances. Hence, the insurer, having taken the risk of violating the regulations and failing to inform the insured about the rejection of the proposal within the scheduled time, cannot claim that the insured did not honour the conditions of the policy.

Since the life insurance policy was a precondition for the housing loan, and the premium was collected and retained by the insurer through the bank, the Court cited the IRDAI Regulations, 2017, to hold that once there is a clear indication of acceptance of the insurance proposal, the subsequent refund of premium only after the death of the insured is unjustified.

The Court stated that the very object of IRDAI Regulations would be frustrated if an insurer were permitted to remain silent during the proposer’s lifetime and later defeat the claim by raising a contention of non-acceptance. Accordingly, the failure to communicate nonacceptance within the stipulated period fastens liability on the insurer, and the plea of non-acceptance raised only after the death of the proposer is unsustainable in law. If the insurer does not do that and retains the premium till the death of the sum assured, they must be estopped from contending that the policy had not come into existence or that the proposal was rejected, added the Court.

The Court also clarified that to permit an insurer to withhold communication during the proposer’s lifetime and thereafter defeat the claim by raising a plea of non-acceptance after his death would be wholly destructive of the object of the insurance and the regulatory mandate, and the insurer, having failed to act within the mandatory timeline and to discharge its duty of bona fide communication, must be held liable.

The Court reiterated that acceptance of the premium itself amounts to a waiver of preconditions such as medical examination and creates a presumption of a concluded contract, and that refund of the premium only after the death of the insured reveals mala fides and amounts to a deficiency of service. The Court found that an intimation as well as the refund of the premium amount was made almost 2 and a half years after the date of the proposal, that too after the death of the insured, and after a claim was raised by the wife of the deceased. Since there is nothing on record to show that the husband (deceased) of the respondent did not comply with any request made by the insurer, the Court referred to Regulation 14 of the IRDAI Regulations, which provides that a death claim must be settled or repudiated within thirty days from the date of receipt of all relevant documents, failing which interest at two per cent above the bank rate shall be payable.

Click here to read the original judgment

 

A non-signatory to an arbitration agreement cannot be compelled to participate in arbitral proceedings merely because it purchased the subject property during the pendency of the arbitration

The Bombay High Court in the case of Luxempire Realty Pvt. Ltd. vs. Eminence Landmarks LLP [Writ Petition No. 2068 of 2025] dated October 16, 2025, has held that a non-signatory to an arbitration agreement cannot be compelled to participate in arbitral proceedings merely because it purchased the subject property during the pendency of the arbitration. The Court therefore quashed the arbitral tribunal’s order impleading Luxempire

Realty Pvt. Ltd., as a respondent in an ongoing dispute between Eminence Landmarks LLP and Gagan Platinum Spaces LLP.

The Court noted that Luxempire Realty was a bona fide purchaser of land and was neither a party to the original 2017 agreement, nor did it derive any contractual rights “through or under” the signatories. Observing that the arbitration clause cannot bind non-signatories without express or implied consent, the Court ruled that the arbitral tribunal had exceeded its jurisdiction in directing the impleadment of Luxempire.

The Court clarified the limits of arbitral jurisdiction and observed that an arbitral tribunal is not a civil court strictly governed by Order I Rule 3 of the Code of Civil Procedure, as parties choosing arbitration agree to a private forum of their own making. Further, an arbitral tribunal cannot confer upon itself jurisdiction where the law does not permit, and compelling a stranger to submit to arbitral proceedings would subvert the very foundation of arbitral autonomy.

Click here to read the original judgment

 

The borrower’s liability under the SARFAESI Act is a continuing one until full discharge of the debt; The computation of “debt due” must include the total liability as on the date of filing of the appeal before the DRAT and not confined to the amount specified in the Section 13(2) notice

The Kerala High Court in the case of Mini Zakir vs Phoenix Arc Pvt Ltd [OP (DRT) No. 183 of 2025] dated October 24, 2025, has held that the expression “debt due” under the proviso to Section 18(1) of the SARFAESI Act necessarily includes the entire liability claimed by the secured creditor, inclusive of accrued and future interest up to the date of appeal. The Court also explained that excluding interest would defeat the legislative intent, which seeks to ensure that only genuine borrowers approach the appellate forum after fulfilling part of their financial liability.

The Court clarified that the term “debt”, as defined in Section 2(g) of the RDDB Act, is of the widest amplitude, covering any liability, inclusive of interest claimed as due from the borrower, and when read with Section 18(1) of the SARFAESI Act, it mandates that the pre-deposit must reflect the borrower’s entire subsisting liability, comprising both principal and interest, either as claimed by the secured creditor or as determined by the DRT, whichever is less.

While emphasizing that the borrower’s liability under the SARFAESI Act is a continuing one until full discharge of the debt, the Court observed that there is no exclusion in the statute of future or accrued interest, and, therefore, the computation of “debt due” must necessarily reflect the total liability as on the date of filing of the appeal before the DRAT and not be confined to the amount specified in the Section 13(2) notice.

Accordingly, the Court dismissed the petition filed by the borrower challenging the Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunal (DRAT) order, whereby the borrower was directed to deposit 40% of the amount mentioned in the possession notice, inclusive of interest, as a condition for hearing the appeal.

Click here to read the original judgment

 

Conviction under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act cannot be termed as an offence involving moral turpitude, and denial of statutory pension to the retiree based on such a conviction is impermissible

The Madras High Court in the case of Srinivasan vs Director, Treasury and Accounts Department [W.P.(MD)No. 24101 of 2025] dated October 13, 2025, has held that a conviction under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act cannot be termed as an offence involving moral turpitude, and denial of statutory pension to the retiree based on such a conviction is impermissible.

The Court referred to the Pension rules to observe that a person failing to have future good conduct would be disentitled from receiving the pension. However, Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act arises out of a contractual dispute between the parties, and involvement therein cannot be said to be an offence that affects the conduct of the person. The Court therefore quashed the order passed under Rule 8 of Tamil Nadu Pension Rules, 1978, whereby the pension was stopped without offering an opportunity to the petitioner, and directed the Treasury Officer (respondent) to release the pension and to pay the arrears of pension, if any, within a period of twelve weeks.

Click here to read the original judgment

 

Regulatory Updates:
SEBI sets a timeline for adjustment in BANKNIFTY, FINNIFTY, and BANKEX for derivative indices trading

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) vide its Circular No. HO/47/15/11(1)2025-MRD-TPD1/ I/63/2025, dated October 30, 2025, has released guidelines for stock exchanges for the introduction of derivatives on non-benchmark indices, such as BANKEX, FINNIFTY, and BANKNIFTY. Aiming to boost market efficiency, enhance representation of the banking and financial sectors, and give more diverse trading and investment opportunities, the SEBI has asked the stock exchanges to adjust the composition and weights of existing non-benchmark indices. As per this circular, in addition to the existing eligibility criteria for derivatives on indices,
stock exchanges shall follow prudential norms before introducing derivatives on non-
benchmark indices (NBI).

The SEBI has also stated that the indices should have a minimum of 14 constituents, the weight of the top constituents being less than or equal to 20%, and the combined weight of the top three constituents being no more than 45%. Further, the individual weight of all the other constituents on the index should be lower than that of the higher-weighted constituents, which means following a descending weight structure.

As far as implementation is concerned, the Board has directed that for BSE’s BANKEX and NSE’s FINNIFTY, the changes must be implemented in a single phase by December 31, 2025. For NSE’s BANKNIFTY, adjustments will be made in four monthly phases and completed by March 31, 2026, to ensure an orderly rebalancing of index-tracking funds.

However, for the BANKNIFTY, adjustments will be made in four tranches, and the new constituents will be added to the index in the first phase, and by the end of the fourth phase, the top three constituents will have a target weight. In each adjustment, the weight of the top 3 constituents would be checked, and if the weights are beyond the prudential norms, the excess would be targeted for reduction equally over the remaining tranches.

Click here to read the original circular

 

MeitY amends IT Rules, 2021, and directs Intermediaries to remove unlawful content within 36 Hours of a Government or Court Notice

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) vide its Notification G.S.R. 775(E). dated October 22, 2025, has notified the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2025, which, with effect from November 15, 2025, will amend the existing IT Rules, 2021, tightening obligations on intermediaries and digital platforms regarding unlawful online content.

As per the amendment, intermediaries will be mandated to remove or disable access to information within 36 hours of receiving actual knowledge of unlawful content either through a court order or a reasoned written intimation from an authorised government officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary. For cases involving police authorities, the officer must be at least of the Deputy Inspector General (DIG) rank.

Additionally, such takedown intimations must clearly specify the legal basis, statutory provision invoked, and the precise electronic location (URL or identifier) of the content. All takedown orders will undergo monthly reviews by a secretary-level officer to ensure they are necessary, proportionate, and legally consistent.

Click here to read the original circular

 

MCA establishes 10 new Registrar of Companies to ensure the timely processing of applications and effective monitoring of corporate compliance

The Ministry of Corporate Affairs vide its Notification No. S.O. 4850(E). dated October 23, 2025, has established ten new Registrar of Companies to discharge functions under the Companies Act, 2013, and other delegated powers, under the powers conferred by Section 396(1) of the Companies Act.

Aligning with the government’s ongoing efforts under the Ease of Doing Business and Digital Corporate Governance initiatives, the MCA has implemented this new structure, which will be effective starting January 1, 2026, seeking to ensure better workload distribution, timely processing of applications, and effective monitoring of corporate compliance.

The key jurisdictions of the new Registrar’s offices are as follows:

  • Registrar of Companies, NCT of Delhi–I (South Delhi), shall include the districts of South Delhi, Southwest Delhi, New Delhi, Southeast Delhi, and East Delhi. Whereas, the Registrar of Companies, NCT of Delhi–II (Central Delhi) shall include the districts of Central Delhi, West Delhi, North Delhi, Northwest Delhi, Northeast Delhi, and Shahdara.
  • Registrar of Companies, Haryana (Chandigarh) shall have jurisdiction over the entire State of Haryana.
  • Registrar of Companies, Uttar Pradesh–I (Kanpur) shall cover the major districts such as Lucknow, Kanpur Nagar, Prayagraj, Varanasi, Bareilly, Gorakhpur, and others across eastern and central Uttar Pradesh. Whereas, the Registrar of Companies, Uttar Pradesh–II (Noida) shall include western UP districts like Agra, Aligarh, Mathura, Meerut, Ghaziabad, and Gautam Buddha Nagar.
  • Registrar of Companies, Mumbai–I (Mumbai) shall have limited jurisdiction over Mumbai and Mumbai Suburban districts, whereas the Registrar of Companies, Mumbai–II (Navi Mumbai) shall cover districts such as Nashik, Thane, Raigad, Jalgaon, Aurangabad, and Palghar. Further, the Registrar of Companies, Nagpur, shall cover Vidarbha and Marathwada regions with districts like Nagpur, Amravati, Nanded, Latur, Chandrapur, and Yavatmal.
  • Registrar of Companies, Kolkata–I (Kolkata) shall be confined to the district of Kolkata, whereas the Registrar of Companies, Kolkata–II (Kolkata), shall cover the entire State of West Bengal except the district of Kolkata.

Click here to read the original notification

 

RBI issues new nomination rules for Safe Deposit Lockers kept in safe custody with the banks

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) vide its Notification No. RBI/2025-26/95 dated October 28, 2025, has issued the RBI (Nomination Facility in Deposit Accounts, Safe Deposit Lockers, and Articles Kept in Safe Custody with Banks) Directions, 2025, which will come into effect from November 01, 2025, seeking to consolidate and update existing instructions to ensure that customers are aware of, encouraged to use, and properly assisted in availing the nomination facility, thereby improving the ease of claim settlement for nominees in case of contingencies.

These Directions apply to all scheduled commercial banks, including small finance banks, payments banks, and regional rural banks, mandating them to offer and publicize the nomination facility for deposit accounts, safe deposit lockers, and safe custody articles to simplify claims settlement upon a customer’s death. Banks must explicitly inform customers about the facility’s benefits and secure a written declaration from those who choose not to nominate.

As per the directions, at the time of account opening or locker allotment, banks must inform customers about the availability, the purpose, and the benefits of the nomination facility. However, if a customer chooses not to avail of the nomination facility, the bank must obtain a written declaration from the customer to that effect before proceeding with account opening or locker allotment, and this refusal cannot be a ground for refusing to open an account.

Further, the banks must devise proper systems to acknowledge the receipt of duly completed forms relating to registration of nomination, cancellation, and/or variation of nomination. Such acknowledgements should be issued promptly and systematically, ensuring an auditable record for both the bank and the customer. It comes with a caveat that, before issuing the acknowledgement, banks must verify and confirm that the nomination is made in accordance with the relevant provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, RBI guidelines, and the applicable Nomination Rules.

Banks are also required to widely publicise the benefits of the nomination facility by printing informative messages on cheque books, passbooks, deposit receipts, and other customer-facing materials; displaying guidance posters at branches; and conducting periodic awareness campaigns through digital and offline channels. The Banks are also directed to ensure complete system readiness and staff training before November 01, 2025, to comply with the new procedural requirements.

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