Legal Updates (October 12 – October 17, 2026)
Legal Updates (October 12 – October 17, 2026)
CASE UPDATES
Income tax dues, being ‘crown debts’, carry no priority over secured creditors and stand extinguished upon approval of the Resolution Plan if not included therein. Section 238 of the IBC gives the Code overriding effect over any inconsistent provision of any other law for the time being in force, including the Income Tax Act
The Calcutta High Court in the case of Ultra Tech Cement Limited vs Union of India [WPA 2036 of 2020] dated September 18, 2026, has quashed all fresh proceedings and adjustments relating to the pre-transfer period, holding that statutory dues stand extinguished if not part of the approved Resolution Plan and that Section 238 of the IBC overrides the Income Tax Act. The Court explained that once a Resolution Plan is approved by the NCLAT under Section 31 of the IBC, all claims stand frozen and any claim not forming part of the approved plan is extinguished, and no fresh proceedings can be initiated or continued in respect of such claims.
The Court said that income tax dues, being ‘crown debts’, carry no priority over secured creditors and stand extinguished upon approval of the Resolution Plan if not included therein. Section 238 of the IBC gives the Code overriding effect over any inconsistent provision of any other law for the time being in force, including the Income Tax Act. The Income Tax Department, having submitted its claim before the Resolution Professional and having had it rejected after collation, cannot subsequently revive or adjust pre-CIRP demands against refunds arising in the post-transfer period.
The Court observed that the Income Tax Department, being an operational creditor, had submitted proof of debt in Form ‘B’ before the Resolution Professional claiming Rs. 24.06 crores, which was rejected after collation. The Court noted that despite an interim order dated July 08, 2021, restraining the respondents from giving effect to the impugned orders, the Centralized Processing Centre (CPC) adjusted the refunds against demands for the pre-transfer period.
The Court took judicial notice of all documents including the intimation issued under Section 245 and the judgments cited at the bar. The Court further observed that the Income Tax Authorities ought to be more circumspect, prudent and vigilant henceforth, and upon approval of a Resolution Plan under the IBC, they are expected to forthwith withdraw all demands pertaining to the pre-transferred period instead of persisting with frivolous and untenable proceedings.
Sections 45G and 45H of the ESI Act cannot be mechanically invoked against a bank to recover a customer’s dues, and once the underlying Section 45A order was kept in abeyance for fresh hearing, the consequential garnishee orders became infructuous
The Calcutta High Court in the case of State Bank of India vs Employees State Insurance Corporation [WPA 6511 of 2025] dated October 05, 2026, has ruled that Sections 45G and 45H of the ESI Act cannot be mechanically invoked against a bank to recover a customer’s dues, and once the underlying Section 45A order was kept in abeyance for fresh hearing, the consequential garnishee orders became infructuous. Accordingly, the High Court quashed the two garnishee orders issued by the ESIC Recovery Officer against SBI and the RBI respectively.
The Court emphasised that since Section 45H applies the Income Tax (Certificate) Rules to ESI recovery and is penal in character, an opportunity of hearing or at least a notice is mandatory before a third party can be asked to pay on behalf of a defaulter employer. The Court also observed that SBI could not have remitted any amount from the customer’s ‘inoperative’ account, and therefore branding SBI as a ‘deemed defaulter’ was without application of mind and violated the principles of natural justice.
The Division Bench also disposed another application, keeping the impugned order in abeyance, restraining coercive measures against the establishment, and directing a fresh hearing before the appellate authority under Section 45 of the ESI Act. Despite these directions, by a letter issued under Section 45G of the ESI Act, the ESI Corporation declared SBI to be a ‘deemed defaulter’, and by a further garnishee order, sought to recover the dues from SBI’s deposit lying with the RBI.
The Court noted that SBI had argued that Sections 45G and 45H of the ESI Act had been wrongly invoked against it. The Bench explained that Section 45G(3) contemplates a notice to a person who holds money of the principal employer, and the primary duty of the ESI Corporation before recovering money from a banker is to ascertain whether the banker is actually in a position to pay the demanded amount or is prevented by any authority of law from remitting it. Further, Section 45H applies the provisions of the Income Tax Act and the Income Tax (Certificate) Rules to recovery under the ESI Act, and being a penal provision, an opportunity of hearing or at least a notice is necessary before demanding money from a third party on behalf of a defaulter employer.
The Court further observed that SBI could not have remitted any amount to the ESI Corporation from an ‘inoperative’ account of the customer, and therefore branding SBI as a ‘deemed defaulter’ in relation to the dues of Respondent No. 3 was without any application of mind and in violation of the principles of natural justice. The Court also noted that the conduct of Respondent No. 1 in issuing notices relating to proceedings that were pending before the Division Bench amounted to an abuse of the process of law.
The RBI placed documents before the Court confirming that the amount debited from SBI’s account pursuant to the impugned garnishee orders had since been credited back to SBI’s account. Accordingly, the Court observed that the impugned garnishee orders had been passed to implement the order under Section 45A of the ESI Act, which had itself been kept in abeyance by the Division Bench on March 17, 2025, with a direction for a fresh hearing.
The statutory requirement of ‘giving of notice’ under proviso (b) to Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 stands complied with once the notice is dispatched by registered post to the correct address of the drawer, and actual personal receipt by the drawer is not mandatory
The Supreme Court in the case of Sainaba vs State of Kerala [2026 INSC 1069] dated September 30, 2026, has ruled that dispatch of notice by registered post to the drawer’s correct address raises a rebuttable presumption of service, irrespective of whether the notice is received by the drawer personally or by a family member residing at the same address. The Court clarified that the statutory requirement of ‘giving of notice’ under proviso (b) to Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 stands complied with once the notice is dispatched by registered post to the correct address of the drawer, and actual personal receipt by the drawer is not mandatory.
The Apex Court elaborated that a rebuttable presumption of valid service arises under Section 27 of the General Clauses Act, 1897 and Section 114 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 upon dispatch of notice to the correct address by registered post. The burden then shifts to the drawer to establish that the address was incorrect, that he had no knowledge of the notice, or that the postal endorsement was erroneous. Where the notice is received by a family member residing at the drawer’s correct address, the presumption of valid service is not defeated, the identity of the recipient is immaterial so long as the notice reached the correct address.
The Court noted that the statutory demand notice was dispatched by registered post to the correct address of respondent No. 2, which was evident from the fact that respondent No. 2 had entered appearance pursuant to summons delivered at the very same address, his Vakalatnama bore the identical address, and his appeal and revision petitions also contained the same address. Significantly, respondent No. 2 never disputed the correctness of his address in his statement under Section 313 CrPC, and it was not even his case that his relationship with his mother was inimical or that they resided separately.
The Court observed that the High Court had completely misread the decision in C.C. Alavi Haji vs. Palapetty Muhammed [(2007) 6 SCC 555], erroneously holding that unless there was evidence showing the accused was aware of the notice, service could not be presumed, and thereby wrongly shifting the burden from the accused-drawer to the complainant. The Court further observed that the Division Bench decision in M.D. Thomas vs. P.S. Jaleel [(2009) 14 SCC 398], which had set aside a Section 138 conviction merely because notice was served upon the wife of the drawer, was rendered without noticing the binding three-Judge Bench decision in C.C. Alavi Haji and was therefore per incuriam.
The Court noted that if M.D. Thomas were treated as binding, it would lead to anomalous consequences where a complainant whose notice was never delivered at all would enjoy the presumption of valid service, but a complainant whose notice was actually delivered and received by a family member residing at the same address would be denied that benefit.
Foreign companies, though recognised for limited regulatory purposes under Chapter XXII of the Companies Act, 2013, do not become ‘companies’ within the meaning of Section 2(20) and cannot be brought within the fold of Section 3(7) of the IBC without express statutory inclusion, and the residuary limb ‘any other person incorporated with limited liability under any law for the time being in force’ must be read as referring only to Indian law
The Chennai Bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) in the case of Punjab National Bank vs Reji Abraham [CP(IB)/177(CHE)/2026] dated September 23, 2026, has ruled that foreign companies incorporated outside India do not qualify as ‘corporate persons’ under Section 3(7) of the IBC, and that Section 60(1) anchors NCLT jurisdiction strictly to the registered office of the Corporate Debtor within India. The Tribunal explained that foreign companies, though recognised for limited regulatory purposes under Chapter XXII of the Companies Act, 2013, do not become ‘companies’ within the meaning of Section 2(20) and cannot be brought within the fold of Section 3(7) of the IBC without express statutory inclusion, and the residuary limb ‘any other person incorporated with limited liability under any law for the time being in force’ must be read as referring only to Indian law.
The Bench reaffirmed that Section 60(1) of the IBC is the governing provision for territorial jurisdiction in personal guarantor insolvency proceedings, and that the place of residence of the Personal Guarantor, the cause of action, or the governing law of the guarantee cannot confer jurisdiction on an NCLT Bench where the Corporate Debtor has no registered office within its territorial limits, since Section 179 is expressly subject to Section 60.
While acknowledging the settled legal position that a creditor may proceed against the Personal Guarantor independently of any CIRP against the Corporate Debtor and that the guarantor’s liability is co-extensive under Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act, the Bench clarified that this right is available only where the registered office of the Corporate Debtor falls within the territorial jurisdiction of the adjudicating NCLT Bench.
The Tribunal observed that the statutory scheme under Section 60(1) of the IBC anchors the territorial jurisdiction of the Adjudicating Authority, for insolvency resolution and liquidation of corporate persons including corporate debtors and personal guarantors, to the NCLT having territorial jurisdiction over the place where the registered office of the corporate person is located.
The Bench noted that the definition of ‘corporate person’ under Section 3(7) of the IBC, read with Section 2(20) of the Companies Act, 2013, confines the expression ‘company’ to one incorporated under the Companies Act or any previous Indian company law, and that the residuary limb ‘any other person incorporated with limited liability under any law for the time being in force’ must, following the decision in Susanta Mukherjee v. Union of India [1975 SCC OnLine Cal 158], be read as referring only to Indian law and not to the laws of any foreign country.
The Tribunal placed reliance on the Supreme Court’s decision in GVK Industries Ltd. v. Income Tax Officer [(2011) 4 SCC 36], observing that Parliament is ordinarily presumed to legislate only for India unless a contrary intention clearly appears, and that no such contrary intention was discernible from Section 3(7) of the IBC. The Bench further noted that a foreign company, though recognised for limited regulatory purposes under Chapter XXII of the Companies Act, does not become a ‘company’ within the meaning of Section 2(20) and cannot be brought within the fold of Section 3(7) without express inclusion.
The Tribunal acknowledged the settled legal position that a creditor may proceed against the Personal Guarantor even in the absence of CIRP or liquidation proceedings against the Corporate Debtor, and that the liability of the Personal Guarantor is co-extensive with that of the principal borrower under Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act. However, it clarified that this right is subject to the statutory requirement that the registered office of the Corporate Debtor must lie within the territorial jurisdiction of the NCLT where the Section 95 application is filed.
Once a Resolution Plan is approved by the CoC and acted upon, the Adjudicating Authority has no jurisdiction to undo the distribution and recall amounts into the liquidation estate
The Amaravati Bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) in the case of PP Bafna Ventures vs KVR Industries [IA (IBC)/388/2025] dated September 30, 2026, has held that once a Resolution Plan is approved by the CoC and acted upon, the Adjudicating Authority has no jurisdiction to undo the distribution and recall amounts into the liquidation estate. The NCLT examined the scope of Section 36 of the IBC and observed that neither the first tranche amount nor the Performance Bank Guarantee (PBG) was reflected as an asset of the Corporate Debtor in the audited Balance Sheet, since the funds had already been utilised and distributed by the Resolution Professional during the CIRP period.
The Bench noted that Section 36 of the IBC is silent on the treatment of amounts paid by the SRA and forfeited due to non-implementation of the Resolution Plan, and both counsels conceded that no judicial precedent exists on identical facts. The Tribunal held that once a Resolution Plan has been approved with the collective wisdom of the CoC and acted upon, the Adjudicating Authority has no jurisdiction to interfere with the distribution carried out in terms of the approved Resolution Plan, which is binding on all stakeholders under Section 31 of the IBC.
The Tribunal examined the scope of Section 36 of the IBC, which defines the ‘liquidation estate’. The Bench noted that Section 36(3)(a) contemplates inclusion of assets over which the Corporate Debtor has ownership rights, as evidenced in the balance sheet, while Section 36(3)(h) includes any property belonging to or vested in the Corporate Debtor at the insolvency commencement date.
On perusal of the audited Balance Sheet of the Corporate Debtor as on 7 November 2025, the Bench observed that neither the amount of Rs.2.60 crore nor the Performance Bank Guarantee (PBG) amount of Rs.2.57 crore was reflected as an asset of the Corporate Debtor. The Auditor had specifically recorded that during the CIRP period, the SRA had deposited an aggregate sum of Rs.5.17 crore in the bank account of the Corporate Debtor, and that the said funds had been utilised and distributed by the Resolution Professional on various dates during the CIRP.
Where a franchise agreement prohibits competing activity ‘directly or indirectly through any associate/sister concern’, the prohibition cannot be defeated merely by routing the competing business through a connected group entity
The Bombay High Court in the case of Parle Agro Private Limited vs Udayak Agro Products Pvt. Ltd. [Comm Arbitration Petition (L) No. 25994 of 2026] dated September 23, 2026, has held that where a franchise agreement prohibits competing activity ‘directly or indirectly through any associate/sister concern’, the prohibition cannot be defeated merely by routing the competing business through a connected group entity. Essentially, the Court held that the Udayak Franchise Agreement’s prohibition on competing activity ‘directly or indirectly through any associate/sister concern’ cannot be defeated by routing the rival water business through KL Beverages, and granted interim protection against both entities pending arbitration.
The Court reaffirmed that Section 9 jurisdiction is not confined to signatories to the arbitration agreement and can extend to non-signatories where the relief is necessary to protect the subject matter of the arbitration, particularly where the contract itself contemplates indirect conduct through connected concerns. The Court explained that common family ownership, common registered office, common email domain, shared functional mailboxes, common personnel, inter-entity adjustment of dues, and the description of one entity as an ‘Associate’ in the other’s audited financials collectively establish a prima facie case that the franchisee and its sister concern function as a single economic unit.
Further, where the franchisee has had long access to the franchisor’s technical know-how, quality systems, manufacturing processes, customer relationships and distribution networks, the Court held that damages cannot adequately compensate for the loss of exclusivity and the continuing competitive advantage gained through use of protected facilities and information. The Court noted that the words ‘indirectly’ and ‘associate/sister concern’ cannot be treated as redundant and must be given their ordinary meaning.
The Court found prima facie material showing that Udayak and KL Beverages function as a single economic unit, common Agarwal family ownership and control, common registered office at 176, F.A. Road, Kumarpara Panchali, Guwahati, common KL Industries Estate compound, common email domain (kigrroup.com), shared functional mailboxes for purchase, accounts, logistics and digital filing, common personnel, and instances of inter-entity adjustment of dues. The audit report recorded a separate RO water system being established for the competing water activity at the KL Beverages premises, with changes in the finished goods warehouse and construction of a new shade for BAILLEY water.
The discovery of a compromise decree, to which the original plaintiff was not a party, satisfied the due diligence requirement under the proviso to Order VI Rule 17 of the CPC, and the proposed amendment did not fundamentally alter the nature and character of the suit
The Supreme Court in the case of Haramani Sahoo vs Lalita Nayak [2026 INSC 1112] dated October 12, 2026, has held that the discovery of a compromise decree, to which the original plaintiff was not a party, satisfied the due diligence requirement under the proviso to Order VI Rule 17 of the CPC, and the proposed amendment did not fundamentally alter the nature and character of the suit. The Supreme Court accepted the plea of due diligence under the proviso to Order VI Rule 17 of the CPC, holding that the original plaintiff’s discovery of the compromise decree only upon obtaining certified copies of the plaint and final decree, constituted a sufficient explanation for not raising the matter before commencement of the trial.
The Apex Court held that the proposed amendment did not fundamentally alter the nature and character of the suit, since the original suit was founded upon the plaintiff’s claim to title, possession and related reliefs in respect of the suit property, and the proposed amendment merely sought to place before the Court facts concerning a compromise decree which affected a portion of that very property.
Reiterating the well-settled principles governing Order VI Rule 17 of the CPC, the Apex Court applied the ‘real controversy test’ and held that amendments necessary for determining the real questions in controversy between the parties ought ordinarily to be permitted, provided they do not alter the basic nature of the suit, and a change in the relief sought does not, by itself, amount to a change in the nature of the suit.
The Court declined to finally determine the questions of limitation and the applicability of Order XXIII Rule 3A of the CPC at the amendment stage, holding that where the plea of limitation is arguable and depends upon disputed facts, including the date or manner in which the plaintiff acquired knowledge of the relevant document or transaction, the amendment need not necessarily be rejected at the threshold, and such objections were left open for consideration by the trial Court.
The Court noted that the original suit itself concerned the right, title and interest in and possession of the very property which formed the subject matter of the proposed amendment, and that the proposed pleading relating to the compromise decree in transfer suit of 1998 arose from the allegation that the said decree affected a portion of the very suit property. The Court further observed that the original plaintiff claimed to have obtained certified copies of the plaint and final decree in suit of 1998 only on June 22, 2020, and that the written statement filed by Defendant Nos. 9 and 10 had not disclosed the source of title of their vendors, which were relevant circumstances in assessing the plea of due diligence.
The Court held that the explanation furnished by the appellants could not, at that stage, be characterised as a mere omission, inadvertence or negligence, and that the subsequent discovery of the compromise proceedings, coupled with the assertion that the original plaintiff was not a party to those proceedings and that the source of title of the vendors was not disclosed in the written statement, provided a sufficient basis for accepting the plea of due diligence for the purposes of the proviso to Order VI Rule 17 of the CPC.
The Court further observed that the proposed amendment did not fundamentally alter the nature and character of the suit, since the original suit was founded upon the plaintiff’s claim to title, possession and related reliefs in respect of the suit property, and the proposed amendment merely sought to place before the Court facts concerning a compromise decree which affected a portion of that very property. The Court noted that the date of knowledge of the compromise decree itself was a matter in dispute and had not been conclusively determined, and that it would therefore be inappropriate to finally determine the question of limitation while considering the application for amendment.
Therefore, while allowing the amendment, the Court imposed costs of Rs. 25,000 on the appellants payable to the contesting respondents within two weeks, and granted liberty to the respondents to file additional written statements, thereby balancing the considerable delay in seeking the amendment and the inconvenience caused to the respondents against the necessity of a complete and effective adjudication of the controversy and avoidance of multiplicity of proceedings.
Where an arbitration clause specifies two places and the governing law clause vests exclusive jurisdiction in courts at one of them, that place is the juridical seat and the other is merely the venue
The Supreme Court in the case of Arcis Clean Energy vs Parshva Innovation [2026 INSC 1109] dated October 12, 2026, has held that where an arbitration clause specifies two places and the governing law clause vests exclusive jurisdiction in courts at one of them, that place is the juridical seat and the other is merely the venue. Accordingly, the Apex Court set aside the Delhi High Court’s order appointing a sole arbitrator under Section 11(6) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, holding that the Delhi High Court lacked jurisdiction because the juridical seat of arbitration was Goa and not Delhi.
The Apex Court reaffirmed the settled distinction between the ‘seat’ of arbitration and the ‘venue’ for arbitral proceedings, holding that the seat is akin to an exclusive jurisdiction clause and that courts at the seat have exclusive jurisdiction to regulate arbitral proceedings. Applying the three-condition test in BGS SGS SOMA JV v. NHPC Ltd. [(2020) 4 SCC 234], the Court held that where an arbitration clause specifies more than one place, the BGS SGS SOMA test is not satisfied and the venue so specified cannot automatically be treated as the juridical seat.
The Court held that in such a situation, the juridical seat must be determined by reading the agreement as a whole, including the Governing Law and Jurisdiction clause, and that the arbitration clause cannot be read in isolation from the rest of the contract for the purpose of ascertaining the seat.
The Court examined the settled distinction between the ‘seat’ of arbitration and the ‘venue’ for arbitral proceedings, drawing on Indus Mobile Distribution Pvt Ltd. v. Datawind Innovations Pvt Ltd. [(2017) 7 SCC 678], Swastik Gases (P) Ltd. v. Indian Oil Corporation Ltd. [(2013) 9 SCC 32], and Brahmani River Pellets Ltd. v. Kamachi Industries Ltd. [(2020) 5 SCC 462]. It reiterated that parties may, by agreement, confer exclusive jurisdiction upon courts at a particular place for regulating arbitral proceedings, regardless of whether any part of the cause of action arose within that court’s territorial jurisdiction.
The Court then distinguished the three-condition test laid down by the three-Judge Bench in BGS SGS SOMA JV v. NHPC Ltd. [(2020) 4 SCC 234] as affirmed in Arif Azim Company Ltd. v. Micromax Informatics FZE [(2025) 9 SCC 750], which requires that (i) the arbitration agreement should designate only one place, (ii) that place must have anchored the arbitral proceedings without scope of change, and (iii) there must be no other significant contrary indicia, before a designated ‘venue’ can be construed as the ‘seat’ of arbitration.
The Court noted that in the present case, the arbitration clause itself specifies two places, namely Delhi and Goa, and therefore the BGS SGS SOMA test is not satisfied to treat Delhi as the seat. It further reiterated that the mere expression ‘place of arbitration’ cannot be the basis for determining the parties’ intention as to the seat, and that the intention must be gathered from other clauses in the agreement, including the conduct of the parties.
When the defendants have deliberately and consciously created a website/domain name in a manner so as to come as close as possible to the plaintiff, its goods and its business by imitating and reproducing the plaintiff’s Intellectual Property and the distinctive manner in which the plaintiff advertises/promotes its products, such case calls for injunction
The Delhi High Court in the case of Archian Foods Private Limited vs Goldenstuff and Beverages Private Limited [CS(COMM) 1105/2026] dated October 08, 2026, has held that when the defendants have deliberately and consciously created a website/domain name in a manner so as to come as close as possible to the plaintiff, its goods and its business by imitating and reproducing the plaintiff’s Intellectual Property and the distinctive manner in which the plaintiff advertises/promotes its products, such case calls for injunction.
The Court observed that the plaintiff is the registered proprietor of various ‘LAHORI’ formative trademarks spread across Classes 30, 32, 16 and 35, and that the plaintiff owns copyright in the artistic works in the Trade Dresses/ Packaging/ Labels. The sales figures have been verified by the Chartered Accountant of the plaintiff, whose certificate has been filed along with the plaint. The Court noted that on account of their extensive use, advertisement and large turnover, the trademarks/copyrights/designs of the plaintiff have acquired invaluable goodwill and reputation throughout the country.
The Court further observed that the impugned logo/trade dress/colour scheme/shape of the bottle adopted by the defendants is bound to create confusion and deception amongst the consumers, public and members of the trade, especially when the range of goods of the plaintiff and the defendants is the same. The Court noted that the adoption of identical or deceptively similar logo/trade dress/colour scheme/shape of the bottle by the defendants is ex facie mala fide, since the defendants are new entrants in the trade whereas the plaintiff is already an established player.
The Court found that the defendants, who commenced business only in January 2026, had reproduced the plaintiff’s distinctive green, yellow and white colour combination, stylized white lettering with black bordered outline, lemons and cumin motifs, slanting taglines, multi-coloured borders, and identical bottle shape with green cap. The Court held that the adoption was ex facie mala fide and bound to cause confusion among consumers.
Accordingly, the High Court granted an ex parte ad interim injunction restraining Goldenstuff and Beverages Private Limited and others from using the marks ‘INDIAN ZEERA’, ‘INDIAN NIMBOO’/ ‘INDIAN MOJITO’, ‘INDIAN SHIKANJI’, along with associated trade dress, packaging, labels, bottle design, taglines, and the domain name LAHORIZEERA.COM, in respect of non-alcoholic beverages and allied goods. The injunction extends to the defendants’ directors, associates, sister concerns, distributors, dealers, and agents, covering manufacturing, selling, advertising, and dealing on the internet, social media, and e-commerce platforms.
Legal Updates (October 05 – October 10, 2026)
Legal Updates (October 05 – October 10, 2026)
CASE UPDATES
A bank’s general clause reserving the right to notify ‘further charges’ on its website cannot be used to impose foreclosure charges not contained in the executed Arrangement Letter, especially when the circular takes effect after the last renewal
The Dehi High Court in the case of Campari Exports vs State Bank of India [W.P.(C) 15111/2024] dated September 15, 2026, has ruled that a bank’s general ‘further charges notified on website’ clause cannot unilaterally alter a concluded loan agreement, and a circular effective after the last renewal cannot bind the borrower to foreclosure charges. Essentially, the Court held that a bank’s general clause reserving the right to notify ‘further charges’ on its website cannot be used to impose foreclosure charges not contained in the executed Arrangement Letter, especially when the circular takes effect after the last renewal. Accordingly, SBI was directed to refund Rs. 83.41 lakhs within four weeks of the order, failing which the amount would carry interest at 9% per annum.
The Court pointed out that a bank’s circular prescribing pre-payment charges, which expressly came into effect from April 01, 2023, cannot be applied to a loan facility that was last renewed on March 24, 2023, even if the circular was uploaded on the bank’s website before the renewal date. The Court reiterated that for a contract to be valid, its terms must be clear, unambiguous, and understood by both parties; absent a true meeting of minds, unilateral imposition of new charges is impermissible.
The Court observed that the Arrangement Letters did not contain any specific provision for foreclosure charges. The Circular on which SBI sought to rely, itself stated that it was effective only from April 01, 2023, which was after the last renewal of the loan facility on March 24, 2023. On the date of the last renewal, the Circular, even though uploaded on SBI’s official website, was yet to take effect.
The Court further noted that the judgment in Union of India vs. Krupanidhi Education Trust (2021) 18 SCC 318] was distinguishable because, in that case, the pre-closure charges of 2% were contained both in the agreement and in the circular, and the circular had been notified before the date of the agreement between the parties. The Ombudsman order did not assist SBI either, as it dealt with deficiency of service and not with the alteration of contractual terms. The Court also noted that the extant policy on the basis of which SBI sought to justify the deduction for transferring the loan facility was neither annexed nor brought to the notice of the Court during arguments.
A sale certificate issued under the SARFAESI Act disclosing known encumbrances does not entitle the bank or the auction purchaser to seek removal of those encumbrances from the encumbrance certificate without first settling the underlying statutory dues
The Madras High Court in the case of Indian Overseas Bank vs Assistant Commissioner of Central Excise and Service Tax [WA No. 3585 of 2023] dated September 30, 2026, has ruled that a secured creditor cannot seek removal of statutory attachments from the encumbrance certificate without the auction purchaser first depositing dues towards known encumbrances under Rule 9(7) of the Security Interest (Enforcement) Rules, 2002. The Court clarified that a sale certificate issued under the SARFAESI Act disclosing known encumbrances does not entitle the bank or the auction purchaser to seek removal of those encumbrances from the encumbrance certificate without first settling the underlying statutory dues.
The Court further held that Section 26E of the SARFAESI Act and Section 31B of the Recovery of Debts and Bankruptcy Act, 1993 grant priority to secured creditors over government dues but do not override the mandatory procedural framework of Rules 9(6) to 9(10). Also, an attachment effected by the revenue department under Section 11E of the Central Excise Act qualifies as an ‘encumbrance’ within the meaning of Section 100 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, restricting the owner’s right of alienation.
A secured creditor is not functus officio merely upon issuance and registration of the sale certificate, so long as its recovery proceedings before the Debts Recovery Tribunal remain pending and dues remain unrealised, added the Court.
The Court noted that the auction was conducted strictly on an ‘as is where is’, ‘as is what is’ and ‘whatever there is’ basis, and the terms of sale expressly stipulated that the purchaser had to clear any statutory liability and that the bank assumed no responsibility in that regard. The Bench observed that the sale notice and the sale certificate read with Rule 9(7) of the Security Interest (Enforcement) Rules, 2002 are founded on the principle of caveat venditor, i.e., let the seller beware, obligating the bank to disclose all known encumbrances, while caveat emptor (buyer beware) simultaneously obligates the purchaser to be vigilant.
The Bench further observed that although Section 26E of the SARFAESI Act and Section 31B of the Recovery of Debts and Bankruptcy Act, 1993 grant priority to secured creditors over government dues, taxes and cesses, none of these provisions stipulate that the registration department must remove known encumbrances from the encumbrance certificate once a sale certificate has been issued disclosing them. The Bench also observed that the attachment under Section 11E of the Central Excise Act constitutes an encumbrance within the meaning of Section 100 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, as it restricts the owner’s right of alienation.
Bank Guarantee in question, being a contract of guarantee furnished by the Bank (surety) on behalf of the Corporate Debtor, falls squarely within the exception carved out under Section 14(3)(b) of the IBC
The Mumbai Bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) in the case of Jayanti Lal Jain, IRP of DK Infrastructure vs Arvind Mathur [IA/4684/2024] dated September 09, 2026, has held that the Bank Guarantee in question, being a contract of guarantee furnished by the Bank (surety) on behalf of the Corporate Debtor, falls squarely within the exception carved out under Section 14(3)(b) of the IBC. The Tribunal observed that the Bank Guarantee is a ‘contract of Guarantee’ provided/furnished by the Bank, the ‘surety’, to perform the ‘promise’, or ‘discharge’ the liability, of the third person, being the Corporate Debtor, in case of his ‘default’.
The Tribunal examined the scope and applicability of the moratorium under Section 14 of the IBC, particularly in the context of invocation of a Bank Guarantee. Section 14(1)(c) prohibits ‘any action to foreclose, recover or enforce any security interest created by the corporate debtor in respect of its property’. However, Section 14(3)(b) of the Code expressly provides that the provisions of sub-section (1) shall not apply to ‘a surety in a contract of guarantee to a corporate debtor’. Furthermore, the proviso to Section 3(31) of the IBC clarifies that ‘security interest’ shall not include a performance bank guarantee.
The Tribunal also took note of the judgment of the NCLAT, New Delhi, in National Small Industries Corporation Ltd. v. Sh. Prabhakar Kumar Liquidator [Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 841 of 2021], wherein it was held that an irrevocable and unconditional bank guarantee is not affected by the moratorium, and that the bank, being the surety, undertakes to discharge the liability of the Corporate Debtor and the assets of the surety are distinct from those of the Corporate Debtor.
From the plain reading of Section 14(3)(b) of the IBC, 2016, along with Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, it is apparent that the Bank Guarantee given by the Bank is covered by the exclusion given in Section 14(3)(b) and that the provisions of Section 14(1) shall not apply, added the Tribunal.
The NCLT therefore concluded also held that the Bank Guarantee provided by the Bank is held to be covered by the exception provided in provisions of Section 14(3)(b) of IBC, 2016, and the Moratorium prescribed under Section 14(1) of IBC, 2016, shall not apply to its ‘Encashment’. In view of the same, the invocation of the Bank Guarantee by the Respondents does not constitute enforcement against the assets of the Corporate Debtor and is not barred by the moratorium under Section 14(1) of the IBC.
Mere transfer of the stamp duty amount to a bank account without generation of the requisite challan does not constitute payment of stamp duty or registration charges by the allottee
The Bombay High Court in the case of JP Builders and Developers vs Santosh Amarsingh Sandhu [Second Appeal No. 116 of 2025] dated September 23, 2026, has ruled that mere transfer of the stamp duty amount to a bank account without generation of the requisite challan does not constitute payment of stamp duty or registration charges by the allottee. The Court held that allottee’s six-month silence after termination notice, and subsequent withdrawal of the amount meant for stamp duty showed absence of genuine intent, and accordingly, the promoter is justified in terminating the allotment where the allottee fails to actually pay stamp duty despite Section 13 RERA framework, repeated notices and clear expressions of financial inability to arrange funds.
The High Court emphasised that Maha RERA and the Appellate Tribunal erred in mechanically invoking Section 13 of RERA to direct execution of the Agreement for Sale without examining whether the allottee had fulfilled his part of the obligation. The Court also said that a fresh allotment letter issued to a subsequent allottee creates an independent contractual relationship, and payments made by an earlier allottee who has taken a refund cannot be claimed by the new allottee against the promoter.
The Court observed that the allottee’s claim of having paid stamp duty and registration charges was not borne out by the record. Although the allottee forwarded payment receipts by email dated 9 July 2019, the bank account extracts placed on record showed that the amount of Rs. 4.65 lakhs were merely transferred to a Punjab National Bank account but was never credited to the Stamp Authority or Registration Authority. The allottee’s own letter dated 18 January 2020 to the bank contained a clear admission that the challan was never generated and that the e-payment receipt was not issued, upon which the bank reversed the amount back to the allottee’s account.
The Court noted that the promoter had issued as many as five notices dated 3 May 2019, 28 May 2019, 24 June 2019, 2 July 2019 and 9 July 2019 calling upon the allottee to pay stamp duty and execute the Agreement for Sale, while the allottee’s only substantive response was the email dated 30 June 2019 expressing inability to arrange funds for stamp duty. After receipt of the termination notice dated 30 July 2019, the allottee maintained stoic silence for about six months and only thereafter approached the bank for refund of the amount meant for stamp duty, which he appropriated for his own use without making any further attempt to pay stamp duty. The Court remarked that this conduct indicated absence of genuine interest in getting the agreement registered, and that the allottee may have been hoarding the flat with the intention of trading the allotment letter.
Pendency of a parallel arbitration proceeding concerning the validity, genuineness, and enforceability of the underlying loan transactions does not debar the lender from issuing a show cause notice under the RBI Master Direction
The Calcutta High Court in the case of Kitply Industries Limited vs Reserve Bank of India [W.P.A. No. 24869 of 2026] dated September 23, 2026, has clarified that pendency of a parallel arbitration proceeding concerning the validity, genuineness, and enforceability of the underlying loan transactions does not debar the lender from issuing a show cause notice under the RBI Master Direction.
The High Court asserted that the wilful defaulter proceeding has its source in statute and RBI guidelines and is substantially independent of the dispute which is the subject matter of the arbitration between the parties. Hence, issuance of a show cause notice alleging that the borrower has disposed of immovable or movable assets provided for securing the credit facility without the lender’s approval is squarely covered under the definition of wilful default in the RBI Master Direction.
The Court observed that the definition of ‘wilful default’ and ‘wilful defaulter’ is contained in paragraphs 3(t) and 3(u) of the Reserve Bank of India (Treatment of Wilful Defaulters and Large Defaulters) Directions, 2024, and that wilful default includes a situation where the borrower has disposed of immovable or movable assets provided for the purpose of securing the credit facility without the approval of the lender. The Court noted that SEFL had issued the show cause notice on the specific allegation that the petitioners had disposed of immovable and movable assets provided for securing the credit facility without the approval of SEFL, and that the description of properties/assets and documentary evidence had been disclosed to the petitioners.
The Court further observed that the issuance of the show cause notice by SEFL was squarely covered under paragraphs 3(t) and 3(i)(D) of the Master Directions, 2024. The Court placed reliance on the order of the Sole Arbitrator dated 13th July, 2026, which had categorically held that the proceeding for declaring the borrower as a wilful defaulter has its source in statute and the RBI guidelines, and is substantially independent of the dispute which is the subject matter of the arbitration.
Accordingly, the NCLT’s dismissal of the Section 7 insolvency petition on the ground that the disputes are already before the Arbitrator does not, by itself, immunise the borrower from a wilful defaulter proceeding under the RBI framework, added the Court.
A claim by one partner against the other partners for contribution in respect of an amount paid towards discharge of the partnership firm’s liability is a dispute arising from the partnership relationship and falls within an arbitration clause covering disputes relating to the partnership deed and books of accounts
The Delhi High Court in the case of Krishan Baldev Bansal vs Balbir Singh Tyagi [FAO(COMM) 64/2026] dated October 05, 2026, has restored the arbitral award holding that a partner’s claim for contribution after discharging the firm’s bank liability is arbitrable under the partnership deed, not a personal guarantor dispute. The Court clarified that a contemporaneous order-sheet recording the parties’ submission that the award may be passed only on a particular claim is sufficient to confine the scope of adjudication, and the absence of a separate written application or statement on oath does not invalidate the award.
Where the parties agree to narrow the disputes before the arbitrator, the arbitrator cannot be faulted for not adjudicating the other reliefs originally pleaded, as those reliefs cease to remain live issues for determination. A claim by one partner against the other partners for contribution in respect of an amount paid towards discharge of the partnership firm’s liability is a dispute arising from the partnership relationship and falls within an arbitration clause covering disputes relating to the partnership deed and books of accounts, added the Court.
The High Court also clarified that the mere fact that the claimant partner also stood as guarantor to the bank does not convert the inter se contribution claim into a personal dispute outside the scope of the arbitration. The substance of the claim, and not the capacity in which the bank proceeded, determines arbitrability.
The Court observed that the order-sheet dated Dec 11, 2023, was a contemporaneous record of the proceedings and recorded the parties’ submission that the award may be passed only on the claim made by Respondent No.3 (the Appellant). The Court noted that the arbitral award explained this understanding by recording that the parties had submitted that the award may be passed only on the claim concerning the loan amount paid by Respondent No.3 to the Bank as guarantor, and that the other claims need not be discussed and decided.
The Court also observed that the Sole Arbitrator had noticed the objection regarding arbitrability, and recorded that no such objection had been raised in the written statement. The Court further observed that the Respondents had not led any evidence to establish that the amount paid by the Appellant was not a liability of the partnership firm.
Unauthorised use of mark/ franchise amounts to actionable trademark infringement, copyright infringement and passing off
The Delhi High Court in the case of Manash Lifestyle Private Limited vs John Doe/ Ashok Kumar [CS(COMM) 985/2026] dated September 15, 2026, has held the unauthorised ‘PURPLLE 2026 Franchise Opportunity’ as actionable trademark infringement, copyright infringement and passing off, emphasising that the goodwill of a Unicorn brand cannot be left to monetary compensation. The Court recorded prima facie infringement under Sections 29(1) and 29(2) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, copyright infringement under Section 51 read with Section 14 of the Copyright Act, 1957, and passing off, on the basis that the identical mark was used as the central identifier of a commercial franchise programme.
The Court observed that the Plaintiff is the registered proprietor of the trademark PURPLLE with 62 registrations across multiple classes, the earliest dating back to Dec 19, 2014, and is the owner of copyright in the registered artistic works comprised in its logos. The Plaintiff’s turnover under the mark rose from Rs. 10,034.99 Lakhs in FY 2019-2020 to Rs. 40,190.69 Lakhs in FY 2024-2025, with promotional expenditure aggregating Rs. 55,990.22 Lakhs over the same six years, reflecting formidable goodwill and reputation.
The Court further observed that Defendant No. 1 had adopted the identical mark PURPLLE together with the logo, the genuine store photographs and the official email address of the Plaintiff, not in any incidental or isolated manner but as the central identifier of a purported franchise programme offered for substantial monetary consideration. The Court recorded that it was prima facie evident that Defendant No. 1 was infringing the registered marks of the Plaintiff and also attempting to pass off its goods as those of the Plaintiff, causing irreparable injury and harm to the goodwill and reputation of the Plaintiff.
The Court therefore granted an ex parte ad-interim injunction against the unknown operator of a Facebook page and WhatsApp Business Account offering a fake ‘PURPLLE 2026 Franchise Opportunity’ for Rs. 15 lakhs, using the Plaintiff’s registered mark, logo, genuine store photographs and official email. Accordingly, Meta was ordered to take down the impugned URL within 36 hours and disclose BSI and IP logs, WhatsApp LLC was directed to suspend the linked account within 36 hours and disclose registration, IP, login and payment details, Reliance Jio was directed to block the mobile number within 36 hours and furnish KYC particulars, and Truecaller was directed to remove the false ‘Purplle Store’ listing within 36 hours.
An express, independent bar on delayed payments, standing apart from any dispute, ousts the arbitrator’s power to award pre-reference interest under Section 31(7)(a) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
The Supreme Court in the case of North-Eastern Electric Power Corporation Limited (NEEPCO) vs Astra Construction Pvt Ltd [Special Leave Petition (Civil) No. 24803 of 2025)] dated September 22, 2026, has held that an express, independent bar on delayed payments, standing apart from any dispute, ousts the arbitrator’s power to award pre-reference interest under Section 31(7)(a) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. The Court explained that the opening words ‘unless otherwise agreed by the parties’ expressly subordinate the arbitrator’s statutory power to the bargain between the parties. An express contractual bar suffices to exclude that power, even if not specifically addressed to the arbitrator’s jurisdiction.
Unlike pendente lite interest, pre-reference interest cannot be sourced in Section 31(7)(a) alone, and it must trace its basis to an agreement (express or implied), a statutory provision such as Section 3 of the Interest Act, 1978, or proof of mercantile usage. The Court therefore said that the plea founded on a contractual bar to interest, when specifically raised in the pleadings before the Arbitral Tribunal, is not waived merely because the Tribunal proceeded to award interest. Such bar can be pressed in subsequent proceedings under Sections 34 and 37 of the Arbitration Act.
The Court said that under the Arbitration Act, 1940, there was no express provision conferring such power, and the Constitution Bench in Secretary, Irrigation Department v. G.C. Roy [(1992) 1 SCC 508] filled the gap by holding that interest could be implied as a term of the bargain. Under the 1996 Act, Section 31(7)(a) expressly confers the power to award interest, but the opening words ‘unless otherwise agreed by the parties’ subordinate that power to the parties’ bargain. The Court reaffirmed that pendente lite interest is governed by procedural law under Section 31(7)(a), whereas pre-reference interest is referable to substantive law and cannot be sourced in Section 31(7)(a) alone.
REGULATORY UPDATES
RBI Grants One-Time Approval Mechanism for Mutual Funds, Insurers & Pension Funds Acquiring Stakes in Banking Companies – Amendment to the 2025 Master Direction eases repeat shareholding acquisitions by regulated institutional investors up to 10% of paid-up capital, while extending RBI’s continuous monitoring and ‘fit and proper’ net to cover them
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued the Reserve Bank of India (Payments Banks – Acquisition and Holding of Shares or Voting Rights) Amendment Directions, 2026, bearing Reference Number RBI/2026-27/277 (DOR.HOL.REC.No.237/16.13.100/2026-27), dated October 1, 2026. These Amendment Directions modify the earlier Reserve Bank of India (Payments Banks – Acquisition and Holding of Shares or Voting Rights) Directions, 2025, referred to as the ‘Master Direction’, which was issued on November 28, 2025, and which mandates that any person seeking to make an initial acquisition of major shareholding in a banking company must obtain the prior approval of the Reserve Bank.
Key Takeaways
One-time approval window for institutional investors: Mutual funds (SEBI-registered), insurance companies (IRDAI-registered) and pension funds (PFRDA-registered), collectively termed “qualifying persons,” can now seek a one-time approval from the RBI for subsequent acquisitions of major shareholding up to 10% of the paid-up share capital or voting rights of a banking company, without needing fresh prior approval each time.
Prior approval continues for initial acquisition: The requirement to obtain prior RBI approval for the initial acquisition of major shareholding remains unchanged. The relief operates only at the subsequent-acquisition stage, and only where the person’s aggregate holding had not fallen below 5% between acquisitions.
Promoter-group-linked qualifying persons covered by proxy applications: A bank may apply for one-time approval on behalf of a qualifying person that belongs to the bank’s promoter group, recognising that such persons may not independently file the application through the PRAVAAH portal.
Revocation on non-compliance or “fit and proper” failure: The one-time approval is subject to conditions specified in the approval and all other applicable provisions of the Directions, and may be revoked by the RBI for non-compliance or if the qualifying person or any person associated with them is subsequently found not to be “fit and proper.”
Extended monitoring and reporting net: Qualifying persons with one-time approval are brought within the RBI’s continuous monitoring framework, and major shareholders with one-time approval must report any decrease or increase of their aggregate holding across the 5% threshold to the RBI and the concerned banking company within three working days.
In substance, the RBI’s amendment creates a one-time approval pathway that lets mutual funds, insurers and pension funds acquire subsequent major shareholding up to 10% in a banking company without repeated prior-approval applications, while folding them into the existing continuous-monitoring and ‘fit and proper’ regime. It is a calibrated easing of process for regulated, non-promoter institutional investors, not a dilution of substantive safeguards.
Click here to read/ download the original Amendment Direction
SEBI Mandates Display of Investor Awareness Messages on Stock Brokers Websites and Trading Apps from October 5, 2026, under Project Jagrook – Stock brokers must prominently display SEBI-prescribed investor awareness messages alongside existing Risk disclosures, with mandatory compliance on websites from November 1, 2026 and on trading apps on alternate days thereafter
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) issued a Circular dated October 01, 2026, bearing reference HO/38/24/(15)2026-MIRSD-PODMMC/I/22872/2026, addressed to all Recognized Stock Exchanges, Depositories, and Stock Brokers (through Recognized Stock Exchanges), mandating the display of ‘investor awareness messages’ by stock brokers on their trading apps and websites under Project Jagrook, SEBI’s nationwide investor awareness initiative, in connection with the upcoming World Investor Week 2026.
Key details:
Continuation of Earlier Framework: The circular builds upon SEBI’s earlier circular no. SEBI/HO/MIRSD/MIRSD-PoD-1/P/CIR/2023/73 dated May 19, 2023, which had already mandated all stock brokers to display ‘Risk disclosures’ to their clients in the specified manner. The present circular is in continuation of that framework and is intended to further investor benefit, safety, and education.
Core Obligation on Stock Brokers: All stock brokers are required to prominently display the “investor awareness message(s)”, as shared by SEBI, on their websites and trading apps in the manner prescribed by the circular. SEBI retains the authority to modify these messages from time to time.
Display Requirements on Websites: During the period from October 5, 2026, to October 31, 2026, all stock brokers must display both the ‘investor awareness messages’ shared by SEBI and the ‘Risk disclosures’ on their websites. From November 1, 2026, onwards, stock brokers are required to display the specified ‘investor awareness messages’ on the landing page of their websites.
Display Requirements on Trading Apps: During the period from October 5, 2026, to October 31, 2026, stock brokers may display the ‘investor awareness messages’ on their trading apps on a voluntary basis. However, if a stock broker chooses to display such messages on any given day, the display of ‘Risk disclosures’ becomes optional for that day. From November 1, 2026, onwards, stock brokers must mandatorily display the specified ‘investor awareness messages’ and ‘Risk disclosures’ on alternate days, on the landing page of their trading apps.
Directions to Stock Exchanges and Depositories: Stock Exchanges and Depositories have been directed to (i) bring the provisions of this circular to the notice of their members/participants, as applicable, and disseminate the same on their websites; (ii) display the ‘investor awareness messages’ shared by SEBI, as it is, on their websites; and (iii) make necessary amendments to the relevant bye-laws, rules and regulations for the implementation of the circular.
Click here to read/ download the original Circular
IBBI Liquidation Process Regulations, 2016 govern every stage of a corporate liquidation, from liquidator appointment and fee determination through claim submission, asset realisation, distribution of proceeds under section 53, and final closure, with the June 2026 and September 2026 amendments substituting the earlier stakeholders’ consultation committee with the committee of creditors, compressing the completion timeline to 180 days, and introducing a revised fee structure based on realisation and distribution
The IBBI (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016, as amended up to 22 September 2026 (most significantly by Notification No. IBBI/2026-27/GN/REG151 dated 1 June 2026 and Notification No. IBBI/2026-27/GN/REG154 dated 22 September 2026), provide the complete operational framework for liquidation of a corporate debtor under Chapter III of Part II of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. The Regulations vest the committee of creditors, constituted under section 21 and continuing into liquidation, with substantive decision-making authority over the liquidator’s key actions, including professional appointments, fee fixation, asset sale strategy, valuation, and early dissolution.
Key Takeaways
Committee of creditors replaces the consultation committee as the central decision-making body during liquidation.
The June 2026 amendment substituted the earlier stakeholders’ consultation committee (Regulation 31A) with the committee of creditors constituted under section 21 of the Code, which continues to function during the liquidation process. The committee now exercises approval authority over professional appointments and their remuneration, liquidator fees, liquidation costs, valuations, sale of assets (including manner of sale, reserve price, and auction process), continuation or institution of legal proceedings, assignment of not readily realisable assets, and early dissolution. Prior committee approval by a two-thirds voting share is required for sale of assets, assignment of not readily realisable assets, and the manner of pursuing avoidance or fraudulent trading proceedings after dissolution. The first meeting of the committee must be convened within seven days of the liquidation commencement date.
Liquidator’s fee restructured around realisation and distribution, with the committee fixing the fee in its first meeting.
Under the substituted Regulation 4, the committee may fix the liquidator’s fee in its first meeting after the liquidator’s appointment, in accordance with section 34(8) of the Code. Where the committee has not fixed a fee, the liquidator is entitled to a fee as a percentage of the amount distributed to stakeholders — net of liquidation costs — across three time bands: the first six months, the next six months, and the period thereafter. The rates range from 5% on the first ₹1 crore distributed in the first six months (reducing to 0.10% on further sums distributed in the period thereafter), with correspondingly lower rates for each subsequent slab. Where the committee fixed the fee under the CIRP Regulations (regulation 39D), that fee continues. A clarification confirms that the new fee structure applies to liquidation processes commencing on or after the Fourth Amendment Regulations, 2026.
Liquidation must be completed within 180 days, a significant compression from the earlier one-year timeline.
Regulation 44 now requires the liquidator to liquidate the corporate debtor within 180 days from the liquidation commencement date, reduced from the earlier one-year period, and further from the original two-year period prescribed at the time of the 2019 amendment. If the liquidator fails to complete within 180 days, he must, on receiving an instruction from the committee, make an application to the Adjudicating Authority to continue the liquidation, with a report explaining why it was not completed and specifying the additional time required. The liquidator continues to discharge his responsibilities until the extension application is decided. The model timeline in Regulation 47 has been correspondingly revised to reflect the 180-day deadline, with the period of any compromise or arrangement under section 230 (up to 90 days) excluded from the liquidation period under Regulation 2B.
Claim submission, verification, and the list of stakeholders are now governed by tightened timelines.
Under the amended Regulations 16 and 30, a person claiming to be a stakeholder who did not submit a claim during the CIRP must submit it within 14 days of the liquidation commencement date (reduced from 30 days), and the liquidator must verify claims within 7 days of receipt (reduced from 30 days). The liquidator must communicate admission or rejection decisions, with reasons, within 7 days. The list of stakeholders must be filed with the Adjudicating Authority within 30 days from the last date for receipt of claims (reduced from 45 days). Regulation 30A permits assignment or transfer of debts by creditors during the liquidation process, with both parties required to provide the liquidator the terms of the assignment and the assignee’s identity. A stakeholder must also update its claim as and when it is satisfied, partly or fully, after the insolvency commencement date.
Secured creditors must elect between relinquishment and realisation within 14 days, with compressed payment windows and section 29A ineligibility extended to asset sales.
Regulation 21A requires a secured creditor to inform the liquidator within 14 days (reduced from 30 days) of the liquidation commencement date whether it will relinquish its security interest or realise it under section 52. Failure to intimate within 14 days results in the secured assets being deemed relinquished to the liquidation estate. A secured creditor who chooses to realise must pay the amount it would have shared had it relinquished, within 45 days of the liquidation commencement date, and the excess of the realised value over the admitted claim within 90 days — both timelines compressed from the earlier 90-day and 180-day windows. Under Regulation 37, if the liquidator identifies a buyer willing to pay more than the secured creditor’s intimated price, the creditor must sell to that buyer; the liquidator must communicate this within 7 days (reduced from 21 days) of the secured creditor’s intimation, and the buyer must act within 14 days (reduced from 30 days). Regulation 32 prohibits the liquidator from selling any movable or immovable property or actionable claims to a person ineligible under section 29A, and Regulation 37(8) extends the same ineligibility to secured creditors realising their own security interest.
Schedule I – Mode of Sale (Auction and Private Sale)
Schedule I, issued under Regulation 33, prescribes the auction process in detail. The liquidator issues a public notice for auction, and in case of failure of an auction, issues a notice for the next auction within fifteen days unless the committee decides otherwise. The entire auction process must be completed within thirty-five days from the issue of the public notice. The liquidator prepares a marketing strategy, terms and conditions of sale including reserve price and earnest money deposit (which shall not exceed ten per cent of the reserve price and no non-refundable deposit or fee may be charged for participation). The reserve price is the value determined under Regulation 35, and on failure of an auction may be reduced with the committee’s approval by not more than ten per cent at a time.
The public notice is published in the same manner as the liquidation public announcement. Prospective bidders must submit an undertaking regarding their eligibility under section 29A of the Code. The liquidator shall sell assets through an electronic auction platform empanelled by the Board, unless a physical auction is likely to maximise realisation and the Adjudicating Authority permits it. The auction shall be transparent with the highest bid visible. The liquidator may reject the highest bid with the committee’s approval by two-thirds voting share, recording the reasons and mentioning it in the next progress report.
On the close of the auction, the highest bidder is invited to provide the balance sale consideration within ninety days, with interest at twelve per cent on payments made after thirty days; the sale is cancelled if full payment is not received within the stipulated period. The liquidator conducts due diligence on the highest bidder within three days and presents the results to the committee for approval. If the highest bidder is found ineligible, the earnest money is forfeited and the next highest bidder may be declared successful after the same process. On payment of the full amount, the liquidator executes the certificate of sale or sale deed with the committee’s approval and the assets are delivered to the successful bidder. Private sale, as an alternative mode, requires a strategy to approach interested buyers, and the sale is confirmed to the buyer in compliance with Regulation 33.
Schedule III – Registers and Books of Account
Schedule III provides indicative formats for the various registers and books the liquidator must maintain under Regulation 6, including the Cash Book, General Ledger, Bank Ledger, Register of Fixed Assets and Inventories, Securities and Investment Register, Register of Book Debts and Outstandings, Tenants Ledger, Suits Register, Decree Register, Register of Claims and Distributions, Contributory’s Ledger, Distributions Register, Fee Register, Suspense Register, Documents Register, Books Register, and the Register of Unclaimed Dividends and Undistributed Proceeds. The liquidator may modify these formats as he deems fit in the facts and circumstances of the liquidation process.
Click here to read/ download the original Regulation
Interim Moratorium on Personal Guarantors Ceases from 26 May 2026: IBBI Circular Distils Bombay and Delhi High Court Rulings – Noting the amendment to Sections 96 and 124 of the IBC, read with twin High Court judgments, IBBI confirms that the interim moratorium no longer bars pending insolvency applications against personal guarantors
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI), through Circular No. IBBI/II/106/2026 dated 21st September 2026, has brought to the attention of all registered Insolvency Professionals, recognised Insolvency Professional Entities, and registered Insolvency Professional Agencies two judicial pronouncements on the cessation of the interim moratorium applicable to personal guarantors of corporate debtors. The Circular records that the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2026 inserted sub-section (4) in sections 96 and 124 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, providing that the interim moratorium shall not apply in respect of a personal guarantor to a corporate debtor, with effect from 26th May 2026.
In this regard, the Bombay High Court, in Tata Capital Financial Services Limited v. Neel Motors LLP and others [Commercial Arbitration Petition No. 620 of 2021], by judgment dated 24th July 2026, observed that the phrase ‘where an application is filed’ would bring within its sweep anything that is filed and is pending with the Adjudicating Authority as of that date. The Court held that had the legislature intended to confine Section 96(4) only to filings made after the introduction of the provision, it would have consciously used language to that effect.
The Court further held that the provision squarely fits within the ambit of a retroactive application, meaning that reading the words ‘is filed’ as including those that have been filed and are pending will give the provision prospective effect from the date it takes effect, rather than retrospective effect. Accordingly, the Court concluded that any application filed for initiating an insolvency resolution process in respect of a personal guarantor to a corporate debtor would not fall within the ambit of Section 96(1) and the related provisions with effect from 26th May 2026, and that the moratorium, insofar as it operated until 25th May 2026, ceased to operate with effect from 26th May 2026, in respect of applications filed under Section 95 of the IBC.
The Delhi High Court, in IDBI Trusteeship Services Ltd. v. Manish Jain and Ors. [CS(COMM) 800/2025], by judgment dated 19th August 2026, concurred with this position. The Court held that the amendment to Section 96 of the IBC by way of insertion of sub-section (4), read with the principles of ‘retroactive’ legislation laid down by the Supreme Court, leaves no doubt that the provisions of sub-section (4) of Section 96 are retroactive in nature, even though the Amending Act did not expressly state so. The Court further held that the import, purport, and impact of such retroactive legislation would amount to ‘quasi retroactivity’ and would be applicable to pending applications.
Accordingly, the IBBI has noted, through this Circular, that the interim moratorium under Section 96, and correspondingly under Section 124, of the Code, in respect of a personal guarantor to a corporate debtor, has ceased to operate with effect from 26th May 2026, in respect of applications pending before the Adjudicating Authority as on that date. The Circular has been issued in exercise of the powers conferred under Section 196 of the Code.
Click here to read/ download the original Circular
Legal Updates (September 28 – October 03, 2026)
Legal Updates (September 28 – October 03, 2026)
CASE UPDATES
Where a trademark has been judicially recognised as well-known and the plaintiffs have established prior recognition of their rights, the continued unauthorised use of the mark by third parties in online business listings, particularly on Google Search and Google Business Profile, causes irreparable injury to goodwill and reputation that cannot be compensated in monetary terms
The Delhi High Court in the case of Agarwal Packers and Movers Ltd vs Agarwal Packers and Movers Delhi [CS(COMM) 1021/2026] dated September 22, 2026, has held that where a trademark has been judicially recognised as well-known and the plaintiffs have established prior recognition of their rights, the continued unauthorised use of the mark by third parties in online business listings, particularly on Google Search and Google Business Profile, causes irreparable injury to goodwill and reputation that cannot be compensated in monetary terms.
The High Court noted that the plaintiffs had placed on record material demonstrating substantial goodwill and reputation in the trademark ‘AGARWAL PACKERS & MOVERS’, and that the said mark had been judicially recognised as a well-known trademark in India. The Court placed reliance on the judgment and decree dated April 04, 2013, in DRS Logistics (P) Ltd. v. Rajesh Agarwal [CS(OS) 1131/2008], which had declared the mark as well-known and granted a permanent injunction restraining use of identical or similar marks.
The Court further observed that the plaintiffs had succeeded in obtaining recognition of their rights on five prior occasions through interim orders or final judgments. The Court found that the use of the plaintiffs’ trademark, name, logo and other identifying indicia by third parties in business listings, particularly in relation to the same or allied services, was prima facie capable of causing confusion and deception amongst members of the public. The Court also noted that the plaintiffs had no practical means of identifying every infringing listing at any given point of time, as listings on Google Business Profile and Google Maps are continuously created and modified.
The Court accepted that ‘AGARWAL PACKERS & MOVERS’ is a well-known trademark in India, and injuncted Defendant nos. 1 to 70 from using the plaintiff’s mark ‘AGARWAL PACKERS & MOVERS’ or any identical or deceptively similar variant as a trademark, trade name, corporate name, keyword, meta tag, or in any other manner, including through Google Search and Google Business Profile listings.
Object of the injunction would be defeated if notice were to precede it, given that the defendant deals in cash, holds substantial stock of infringing goods, has shifted its premises from the GST-registered address, and is prepared to despatch goods across State lines
The Delhi High Court in the case of Aktiebolaget Volvo vs Pooja Lubricant [CS(COMM) 940/2026] dated September 24, 2026, has observed that the object of the injunction would be defeated if notice were to precede it, given that the defendant deals in cash, holds substantial stock of infringing goods, has shifted its premises from the GST-registered address, and is prepared to despatch goods across State lines, including to Delhi, creating a reasonable apprehension that advance notice would enable dispersal of the infringing stock into the market. The injury likely to be caused to the plaintiffs was held not adequately compensable in damages, as continued sale of lubricants under the impugned marks threatens to erode the distinctiveness of a coined mark used for over a century, and any deficiency in the defendant’s product quality is likely to be attributed to the plaintiffs.
The Court observed that the mark ‘MAX VOLVO’ reproduces the plaintiff’s mark ‘VOLVO’ in its entirety, with the prefix ‘MAX’ being a commonplace, laudatory expression suggesting superlative quality, which does not detract from ‘VOLVO’ being the dominant and distinctive element. The mark ‘MAX VOLWO’ differs from ‘MAX VOLVO’ only in the substitution of the letter ‘W’ for ‘V’, making the two marks visually near-identical and practically indistinguishable when spoken, since the sounds represented by ‘V’ and ‘W’ are commonly pronounced alike. A purchaser of average intelligence and imperfect recollection is likely to perceive ‘MAX VOLWO’ as nothing but a variant of ‘VOLVO’.
The Court further observed that the goods in question are identical, as the defendant deals in lubricants (engine oil and gear oil) and each of the plaintiffs’ registrations covers goods in Class 4, sold through the same trade channels to the same class of purchasers (vehicle owners, mechanics and workshops). Since the impugned marks are not identical with the registered mark in the strict sense, the case falls within Section 29(2)(b) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, and the Court need not, at this stage, invoke the presumption under Section 29(3).
The Court further treated ‘VOLVO’ as a coined, inherently distinctive mark not found in any English dictionary, with the prefix ‘MAX’ being a commonplace laudatory expression that does not detract from the dominant element. The Court explained that substitution of ‘W’ for ‘V’ in ‘MAX VOLWO’ was held visually near-identical and practically indistinguishable when spoken, since ‘V’ and ‘W’ are commonly pronounced alike.
Where the e-auction notice contains an express clause providing for forfeiture of the Earnest Money Deposit (EMD) and any other amounts deposited upon failure to pay the balance sale consideration within the stipulated time, forfeiture operates as a necessary consequence of the bidder’s default
The Supreme Court in the case of ASJ Finsolutions Pvt Ltd vs Vikram Bajaj [Civil Appeal No.13023 of 2025] dated September 28, 2026, has held that an express forfeiture clause in the e-auction notice binds the bidder despite the absence of an express forfeiture stipulation in Schedule I of the Liquidation Process Regulations, 2016. The Court clarified that where the e-auction notice contains an express clause providing for forfeiture of the Earnest Money Deposit (EMD) and any other amounts deposited upon failure to pay the balance sale consideration within the stipulated time, forfeiture operates as a necessary consequence of the bidder’s default.
The Court also said that absence of an express forfeiture stipulation in Schedule I of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016 does not protect a defaulting bidder, since the contractual terms freely accepted at the time of bidding govern the consequences of non-payment. Further, the Triple Test, relating to a hidden agenda to rig the auction, lack of genuine financial capacity, or extraneous reasons preventing payment, does not assist a bidder who has admittedly defaulted and fails to substantiate financial capacity through credible material evidence.
A successful bidder who participates with full knowledge of title disputes and the ‘as is where is’ nature of the sale cannot, after the deadline expires, seek prior title deeds as a ground to resile from payment of the balance sale consideration, added the Court.
The Court noted that although Schedule I of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016 caps the EMD at 10% of the reserve price and does not expressly provide for forfeiture, the e-auction notice in this case contained a specific and explicit forfeiture clause. The Court observed that the appellant had bid with full knowledge of the dispute over the sale deed and had deposited 25% of the bid amount (Rs. 6.39 crores, comprising Rs. 2.55 crores as EMD and Rs. 3.84 crores towards part of the balance consideration) without any protest.
The Court emphasised that the appellant could not turn around and rely on the regulations to escape the consequences of a contractual forfeiture clause freely accepted at the time of bidding. The Court further observed that the appellant’s request for prior sale deeds came only after the 30-day period had expired and just before the 90-day deadline, which was impermissible given the ‘as is where is’ nature of the sale.
The Court found that the appellant had not sought verification of title deeds at any point during the bidding process and could not project this omission as a ground to resile from payment. The Court also noted that the higher price realised in the subsequent auction reflected the inherent value of the property and could not be treated as a set-off against the forfeited amounts.
An unregistered lease deed for 30 years is inadmissible in evidence under Section 49 of the Registration Act, and occupants who are close relatives of the suspended directors of the Corporate Debtor cannot defeat the liquidation mandate by asserting tenancy rights based on such unregistered documents
The New Delhi Bench of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) in the case of Duke Fashions (India) Ltd vs Pramod Kumar Misra [Company Appeal (AT)(INS) No. 1462 of 2026] dated September 22, 2026, has clarified that the liquidator can validly continue an eviction application originally filed by the Resolution Professional, as Section 35 of the IBC vests pari materia powers identical to Sections 18 and 25, and the contents of the application govern maintainability. The Tribunal explained that Section 238 of the IBC operates as a complete override and prevails over the East Punjab Urban Rent Restriction Act, 1949 to the extent of any inconsistency, being a special, later legislation enacted for time-bound resolution and realisation of distressed assets.
Further, the Tribunal emphasised that an unregistered lease deed for 30 years is inadmissible in evidence under Section 49 of the Registration Act, and occupants who are close relatives of the suspended directors of the Corporate Debtor cannot defeat the liquidation mandate by asserting tenancy rights based on such unregistered documents.
The Tribunal recorded three key factual findings of the NCLT: (a) the Corporate Debtor is the absolute owner of the subject properties; (b) the appellants are not tenants but unauthorised occupants illegally using the property; and (c) the purported lease for 30 years was never registered and therefore could not be received in evidence under Section 49 of the Registration Act. The appellants were found to be close relatives of the suspended directors of the Corporate Debtor, falling within the definition of ‘related party’ under Section 5(24) of the IBC, and the NCLT observed that this was a deliberate game plan to throttle the auction process, which had already failed nine times.
The Tribunal noted that both properties were reflected in the Balance Sheet and Books of Accounts of the Corporate Debtor and formed part of the liquidation estate under Section 36(3)(a) of the IBC. Sections 35(1)(b), (d), (e), (k) and (l) of the IBC collectively confer comprehensive authority upon the Liquidator to take custody and control of the assets of the Corporate Debtor, and these powers are not merely enabling but impose mandatory statutory duties.
The NCLAT observed that the Supreme Court in Gujarat Urja Vikas Nigam Ltd. v. Amit Gupta [(2021) 7 SCC 209] had clarified that the NCLT has jurisdiction to adjudicate disputes which arise solely from or relate to the insolvency of the Corporate Debtor, provided the nexus with insolvency exists. The Tribunal further observed that the Supreme Court’s decision in Vishal N Kalsaria Vs Bank of India [(2016) 3 SCC 762], was decided on Jan 20, 2016, before Section 238 of the IBC was enacted, was confined to the SARFAESI Act, and was premised on the protection of a blameless, unrelated, rent-paying third-party tenant, conditions entirely absent in the present case where the appellants are related parties who have admittedly not paid any rent for seven years.
The NCLAT also relied on its own decisions in Jhanvi Rajpal Automotive Pvt Ltd. v. Resolution Professional [CA(AT)(Ins.) No. 1417 of 2022] and Adinath Jewellery Exports v. Mr. Brijendra Kumar Mishra [Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 748 of 2022], holding that the Liquidator/RP can seek eviction of tenants, licensees and other occupants before the NCLT without resorting to civil or rent control proceedings, and that the Rent Act is relevant only where there exists a registered lease deed supported by regular payment of rent. The constitutional argument based on Entry 18 of List II of the Seventh Schedule was rejected, with the NCLAT holding that the IBC is legislation on insolvency enacted under Entries 9 of List III and Entries 43-44 of List I, and the mere incidental effect of an IBC order on possession does not convert an insolvency matter into a landlord-tenant matter.
ESI amounts contributed by both employer and employee, lying with the Corporate Debtor, are held in trust and fall within the exclusion under Section 36(4)(a)(i) of the IBC. Such amounts cannot form part of the liquidation estate available for distribution under Section 53 of IBC
The Chennai Bench of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) in the case of Employees State Insurance Corporation vs Sri Lakshmi Srinivasa Jute Mills [Company Appeal (AT) (CH) (Ins) No.410/2022] dated September 25, 2026, has held that ESI contributions deducted from employee’s wages and payable by the employer under the ESI Act, 1948 are held by the Corporate Debtor in trust for the beneficiaries and fall within the exclusion under Section 36(4)(a)(i) of the IBC. The Tribunal explained that the procedural act of filing a claim in Form-B does not convert a statutory trust amount into an ordinary operational debt of the Corporate Debtor.
The NCLAT clarified that Section 36(4)(a)(iii) of the IBC, which specifically refers to provident fund, pension fund, and gratuity fund, is not the source of the exclusion for ESI contributions; the exclusion flows independently from Section 36(4)(a)(i) read with Section 40(4) of the ESI Act. Hence, ESI contributions cannot be subjected to the waterfall distribution mechanism under Section 53 of the IBC, and a Resolution Plan that treats them as ordinary Government or Operational Creditor dues requiring only a fractional payout is liable to be set aside to that extent.
The Tribunal observed that the issue was no longer res integra and stood squarely covered by its earlier decision in Nurani Subramanian Suryanarayanan, Liquidator of M/s. Care IT Solutions Pvt Ltd. v. Employees State Insurance Corporation [TA (AT) No. 212/2021], wherein the Tribunal considered the interplay between Section 40(4) of the ESI Act, 1948 and Section 36(4)(a)(i) of the IBC, and held that ESI amounts contributed by both employer and employee, lying with the Corporate Debtor, are held in trust and fall within the exclusion under Section 36(4)(a)(i) of the IBC. Such amounts cannot form part of the liquidation estate available for distribution under Section 53 of the Code.
The Tribunal held that the mere fact that ESIC submitted its claim in Form-B and that the claim was consequently described as an Operational Creditor claim cannot alter the substantive character of the amount. The form prescribed for submission of a claim is procedural in nature and cannot have the effect of converting an amount statutorily required to be held for the benefit of employees into an asset beneficially belonging to the Corporate Debtor. Consequently, the Respondents’ estoppel argument based on Form-B filing was rejected.
A purchaser who acquires a project through a SARFAESI e-auction steps into the shoes of the erstwhile owner and cannot claim a fresh capital subsidy where the original sanction stood withdrawn and the scheme had expired
The Delhi High Court in the case of Goodwill Energy Enterprises vs Union of India [W.P. (C) 4328/2022] dated September 21, 2026, has held that a successor acquirer of a project through e-auction under SARFAESI cannot seek revival of capital subsidy once the underlying scheme has lapsed, and mere correspondence seeking a progress report does not extend the life of the scheme. The Court explained that a purchaser who acquires a project through a SARFAESI e-auction steps into the shoes of the erstwhile owner and cannot claim a fresh capital subsidy where the original sanction stood withdrawn and the scheme had expired.
The Court said that a letter merely requesting submission of a progress report, synchronization certificate, and extension of a bank guarantee does not amount to condonation of delay in commissioning or revival of a withdrawn subsidy. Accordingly, once a subsidy scheme has lived its stipulated life and served the purpose for which it was introduced, no benefit can be granted under it to a subsequent claimant, as doing so would amount to issuing a fresh sanction in the absence of any operative scheme.
The Tribunal observed that the present petition was filed assailing letters dated Feb 27, 2019, and Sep 06, 2019, and thus the petition had been filed after a period of more than two years, with absolutely no justification given for the delay. The Court placed reliance on the Judgment of the Apex Court in Chennai Metropolitan Water Supply & Sewerage Board v. T.T. Murali Babu [(2014) 4 SCC 108], wherein it was held that the doctrine of delay and laches should not be lightly brushed aside, and a writ court is required to weigh the explanation offered and the acceptability of the same. The Court noted that while no statutory limitation period is prescribed for instituting a writ petition under Article 226 of the Constitution, undue delay and laches may nonetheless defeat the petitioner’s right to challenge the impugned order, as it could cause prejudice to the opposite party.
On merits, the Court observed that the petitioner came to acquire the project on Oct 07, 2017, pursuant to the SARFAESI proceedings, and even after taking over the project, the petitioner did not immediately approach the respondent or assert any entitlement to subsidy under the scheme. The Court further observed that the contention of the petitioner that the respondent had condoned the delay in commissioning of the project by its letter dated June 19, 2018, was misplaced, as the said letter was merely a request for a report regarding the progress of the project and compliance in relation to the Bank Guarantee, and did not extend the life of the Scheme or provide for continuation of the subsidy beyond the period prescribed under the Scheme.
Herbalife established a prima facie case of trademark infringement under Section 29 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 and passing off against the sellers of ‘Herbawish’ and ‘Herbawish Nutrition’ nutritional products, on the ground that the rival marks were visually and phonetically deceptively similar to its registered ‘Herbalife’ trademarks with the common prefix ‘Herba’ enhancing deception
The Delhi High Court in the case of Herbalife International vs Ashish Kumar [CS(COMM) 997/2026] dated September 15, 2026, has found prima facie infringement of near-identical trade dress and three-leaf device copycat of Herbalife’s registered marks, and directed Amazon, Flipkart and IndiaMART to take down 18 listings within 36 hours and disclose seller KYC details. The Court found that Herbalife established a prima facie case of trademark infringement under Section 29 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999 and passing off against the sellers of ‘Herbawish’ and ‘Herbawish Nutrition’ nutritional products, on the ground that the rival marks were visually and phonetically deceptively similar to its registered ‘Herbalife’ trademarks with the common prefix ‘Herba’ enhancing deception.
The Court treated the copying of the Plaintiff’s trade dress, including the three-leaf device, colour combination, white container background, green band and label placements, as evidence of dishonest intent, holding that the rival products were difficult to distinguish by a person of average intelligence and imperfect recollection. Further, use of the Plaintiff’s registered three-leaf device by the Defendants was prima facie held to be trademark infringement, with the Court noting that since the products were nutritional, inferior quality could pose health risks to the public and dilute the ‘Herbalife’ mark.
The Court observed that the Plaintiff had made out a prima facie case for grant of ex parte ad interim injunction against Defendants No. 1 and 2, with the balance of convenience lying in favour of the Plaintiff and a likelihood of irreparable harm if the injunction was not granted. The Court noted that the impugned marks ‘Herbawish’ and ‘Herbawish Nutrition’ were visually and phonetically deceptively similar to the Plaintiff’s ‘Herbalife’ trademarks, with the deception being enhanced by the common prefix ‘Herba’, and that since the rival products were identical with a common consumer base and trade channels, there was every likelihood of confusion among members of the public.
The Court further observed that the dishonest intent of Defendants No. 1 and 2 was evident from their copying of the Plaintiff’s packaging/trade dress, including the three-leaf device, colour combination, white container background, green band and placements, making the rival products difficult to distinguish by a person of average intelligence and imperfect recollection, and that the use of the registered three-leaf device prima facie amounted to infringement under Section 29 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999. The Court also noted that since the products in question were nutritional products, inferior quality could pose health risks to the public and tarnish the Plaintiff’s image while diluting the ‘Herbalife’ trademarks.
Section 31(i) of the SARFAESI Act begins with a non-obstante clause and exempts any security interest created in agricultural land from the coercive recovery mechanism of the Act, with the twin objects of protecting agriculturists’ livelihood and discouraging creditors from accepting such land as security
The Andhra Pradesh High Court in the case of Jampani Satyanarayana vs Canara Bank [Writ Petition No.15623 of 2025] dated September 28, 2026, has held that Section 31(i) of the SARFAESI Act begins with a non-obstante clause and exempts any security interest created in agricultural land from the coercive recovery mechanism of the Act, with the twin objects of protecting agriculturists’ livelihood and discouraging creditors from accepting such land as security. The Court clarified that the classification of land as agricultural in revenue records is not conclusive; the question must be determined as a matter of fact from the nature of the land, the use to which it was being put on the date of creation of the security interest, and the purpose for which it was set apart.
Moving ahead, the Court emphasised that the burden lies on the borrower to prove that the secured properties were agricultural lands and that agricultural activities were actually being carried on at the time of creation of the security interest, and this burden can be discharged through a combination of revenue records, Adangal/Pahani, pattadar passbook, third-party affidavits, cultivation certificates, soil health cards, and contemporaneous Advocate Commissioner inspection reports.
The Court considered the principles laid down by the Supreme Court in ITC Limited vs. Blue Coast Hotels Limited and Indian Bank vs. K. Pappireddiyar, observing that the classification of land in revenue records as agricultural is not conclusive, and that the question must be determined as a matter of fact from the nature of the land, the use to which it was being put on the date of creation of the security interest, and the purpose for which it was set apart.
The Court further pointed out that the secured creditors, especially leading banks, are expected to exercise due diligence before accepting agricultural land as security, they must cross-check the description in the registered sale deeds, verify the nature of the land, and where necessary obtain legal opinion. The Court also cautioned that where an auction notice is set aside due to procedural lapses or statutory violation, the auction purchaser is entitled to a full refund of the sale money along with interest from the date of deposit till the date of payment, and his prior legal rights must be restored, leaving the parties to work out their substantive remedies before the Civil Court.
Legal Updates (Sep 14 – Sep 26, 2026)
Legal Updates (September 14 – September 26, 2026)
CASE UPDATES
Corporate Debtor’s own audited balance sheets and ledger entries are conclusive acknowledgement of liability under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963. Financial Creditor and Corporate Debtor being sister concerns with common directors, cannot by itself render a transaction sham when Corporate Debtor has repeatedly acknowledged the liability in its own books
The Mumbai Bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) in the case of B.Y. Agro And Infra Ltd. vs Wardha Mega Food Park Private Limited [C.P. (IB)/9/MB/2026] dated September 04, 2026, has held that the Financial Creditor (FC) and Corporate Debtor (CD) being sister concerns with common directors and shareholders is a relevant circumstance requiring scrutiny, but cannot by itself render the transaction sham or collusive when the CD has repeatedly acknowledged the liability in its own books.
The Tribunal clarified that the IBC does not mandate a document styled as a ‘loan agreement’, rather, what matters is the substance of the dealings and the surrounding documentary record, particularly the CD’s own audited financial statements and ledger entries. Following the Supreme Court’s ruling in M/s Orator Marketing Pvt Ltd. Vs M/s Samtex Desinz Pvt Ltd. [Civil Appeal No. 2231 of 2021], the Tribunal held that the absence of contractual interest does not, by itself, take a transaction outside Section 5(8), especially where the advance was made for working capital requirements and recognised by the recipient as a borrowing.
The Tribunal observed that the absence of a formal loan agreement, repayment schedule, sanction letter, or Board resolution cannot, by itself, defeat a claim of financial debt under Section 5(8) of the IBC. What is required at the Section 7 stage is to examine whether, on the material placed on record, there exists a financial debt and a default in respect thereof, gathered from the substance of the dealings between the parties. The Bench reiterated that interest-free loans advanced to finance business operations can constitute financial debt under Section 5(8).
The Tribunal further observed that the related-party relationship, while a relevant circumstance requiring scrutiny, cannot by itself lead to the conclusion that the transaction is sham or collusive, particularly when the alleged borrower has repeatedly acknowledged the liability in its own books. The NeSL record was treated as corroborative rather than as independent proof of the debt.
Carving out a generic phrase from a wider branded mark cannot attract registration under Section 9 of the Trade Marks Act, and a trademark consisting of a simple combination of generic, descriptive or laudatory words is devoid of distinctive character and falls foul of both Section 9(1)(a) and Section 9(1)(b) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999
The Bombay High Court in the case of Graviss Foods Private Limited vs Registrar of Trade Marks [Commercial Miscellaneous Petition No. 20 of 2026] dated September 16, 2026, has held that carving out a generic phrase from a wider branded mark cannot attract registration under Section 9 of the Trade Marks Act. The Court said that a trademark consisting of a simple combination of generic, descriptive or laudatory words such as ‘ICE CREAM ROCKS’ is devoid of distinctive character and falls foul of both Section 9(1)(a) and Section 9(1)(b) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, even where the applicant actually uses the mark in the market with a brand differentiator.
The Court clarified that an applicant cannot, by carving out the generic and descriptive integers from a wider branded mark actually used in commerce as ‘Baskin Robbins Ice Cream Rocks’, secure a statutory monopoly over those integers alone, since the proviso to Section 9 cannot be invoked on the strength of use of the wider mark. The Court also clarified that acquired distinctiveness under the proviso to Section 9 requires long, continuous and extensive use; a period of seven months between the attested commencement of use and the date of application is insufficient to clothe generic words with secondary meaning, particularly where the mark is not shown to be a household name.
The High Court went on to explain that the registration of other marks containing the same generic expression neither creates a precedent nor confers a right upon a later applicant to demand similar treatment, especially where those registrations carry a distinguishing brand element that the subject mark lacks. Further, where a mark is hit by the absolute bar under Section 9, the relative grounds under Section 11, including the Registrar’s invocation of likelihood of confusion with prior cited marks, become academic and need not be further analysed, even if the Section 11 reasoning itself is inadequately articulated.
The Court observed that the actual use of the mark in the market was ‘BR Ice Cream Rocks’ with the ‘Baskin Robbins’ prefix, but what was sought to be registered was only the phrase ‘ICE CREAM ROCKS’, a combination of two generic words with no brand differentiator. The Court noted that ‘ICE CREAM’ is the name of the goods themselves and cannot be monopolised, while ‘ROCKS’, whether read as a noun, a verb, or colloquially, does not, when combined with ‘ICE CREAM’, produce a mark capable of distinguishing the Petitioner’s goods from those of others.
The Court further observed that the Petitioner had placed reliance on about 130 registrations containing the expression ‘ICE CREAM’, but almost all of them carried a distinguishing brand element such as ‘Amul’, ‘Arun’, ‘METRO THE DAIRY ICECREAM’ or ‘HOKEY POKEY ICE CREAM PARLOUR’, precisely the element that the Subject Mark, as applied for, lacked. On the question of acquired distinctiveness, the Court noted that the applications were filed within seven months of the attested commencement of use, on the very same day as the Affidavit of User, and that such short use of a wider mark could not confer distinctiveness on a part of that wider mark that was itself generic and descriptive.
IBC 2026 amendment operates on pending applications and aligns guarantor treatment with SARFAESI regime. The interim moratorium under Section 96 is procedural and transitory in nature, operating only till the resolution professional submits a report under Section 99, and does not create a vested right in the personal guarantor
The Bombay High Court in the case of Indian Bank vs Shabbir Abbas Patel [Writ Petition No. 2819 of 2026] dated September 18, 2026, has ruled that the IBC 2026 amendment operates on pending applications and aligns guarantor treatment with SARFAESI regime. By curbing the rampant misuse of Sections 94–96 IBC by personal guarantors to corporate debtors, the Court explained that the newly inserted sub-section (4) of Section 96 of the IBC, introduced with effect from May 26, 2026, applies retroactively and covers applications under Sections 94 and 95 that were pending on the cut-off date, and those filed thereafter.
The Court went on to explain that the interim moratorium under Section 96 is procedural and transitory in nature, operating only till the resolution professional submits a report under Section 99, and does not create a vested right in the personal guarantor. The Court also invoked the Mischief Rule (Heydon’s Rule) to give full effect to the legislative intent of curbing the rampant misuse of the interim moratorium, which the IBBI Chairperson had flagged as the ‘number one mechanism’ for siphoning of crores by debtors.
The Court observed that the interim moratorium under Section 96 of the IBC was being rampantly misused by personal guarantors to corporate debtors, who would file applications under Sections 94/95 of the IBC at the fag end of recovery proceedings merely to trigger the moratorium and frustrate legitimate creditor action. The Court took judicial notice of this mischief.
The Court noted that the process between Sections 94 and 99 of the IBC is purely procedural in nature, and the substantive step of insolvency resolution begins only when the adjudicating authority passes an order under Section 100. The Court further observed that the interim moratorium under Section 96 is a transitory arrangement operating only till the resolution professional submits a report under Section 99 and therefore cannot be treated as an absolute or indefeasible right in favour of the debtor.
Margin money is the borrower’s contribution deposited as a condition precedent for issuance of Bank Guarantees and is not a ‘security interest’ of the Corporate Debtor under the IBC. Accordingly, upon expiry of the Bank Guarantee without invocation, the corresponding margin money must be released to the Corporate Debtor
The Mumbai Bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) in the case of Jayanti Lal Jain vs Pranaya Prusty [IA/5149/2024] dated September 07, 2026, has held that margin money is the borrower’s contribution under lien only during subsistence of a live Bank Guarantee. The NCLT explained that margin money is the borrower’s contribution deposited as a condition precedent for issuance of Bank Guarantees and is not a ‘security interest’ of the Corporate Debtor under the IBC. Accordingly, upon expiry of the Bank Guarantee without invocation, the corresponding margin money must be released to the Corporate Debtor.
Once the underlying Bank Guarantees have lapsed, the Bank has no right to retain the margin money or adjust it towards any other liability of the Corporate Debtor, including fund-based working capital exposure, added the Tribunal.
The Tribunal noted that no security interest had been created by the Corporate Debtor on the margin money, and that the margin money was deposited as a condition precedent for the sanction of Bank Guarantees. The margin money is a contribution on the part of the borrower seeking a Bank Guarantee, and the margin money remitted with the Bank is under lien as long as the Bank Guarantee is alive.
Once the Bank Guarantee is invoked by the beneficiary, the Bank would be able to remit the amount to the beneficiary along with the amount of margin money. The margin money can be utilised by the Bank as a matter of right as per the contract, and in case the Bank Guarantee is not invoked or has lapsed, the borrower/Corporate Debtor would be entitled to the margin money. The Bank has its rights over the margin money in terms of the contract only, added the Tribunal.
The Tribunal placed reliance on the order of the NCLAT in Indian Overseas Bank v. Arvind Kumar RP M/s Richa Industries Ltd [(2020) ibclaw.in 285 NCLAT], which held that the margin money remains with the Bank as long as the Bank Guarantee is alive. If the Bank Guarantee expires without being invoked, the margin money reverses back to the borrower, and in case the Bank Guarantee is invoked by the beneficiary, the margin money goes towards payment of the Bank Guarantee to the beneficiary, and nothing remains with the financial institutions which can be reversed to the Corporate Debtor.
The NCLT also observed that the tax department may determine tax, interest, fine or penalty and file its claim before the Resolution Professional during moratorium, but cannot enforce attachment or recovery against the Corporate Debtor’s property during the subsistence of the moratorium. However, permitting attachment or enforcement by the VAT Department during moratorium undermines the resolution process and prejudices the interests of all stakeholders, and is contrary to the spirit of the IBC.
On the VAT Department’s lien, the Tribunal relied on the NCLAT decision in Commissioner of State Tax Department v. Ramchandra Dallaram Chaudhary (Liquidator) [(2024) ibclaw.in 331 NCLAT], observing that during the moratorium period, the tax department could determine the tax, interest, fine or any penalty due, but could not enforce its claims for recovery or levy of interest on the tax due during the moratorium. Allowing attachment over property during the subsistence of the moratorium would undermine resolution of the Corporate Debtor and would prejudice the interests of all stakeholders, which is against the spirit of the Code.
Pre-CIRP land acquisition agreements and welfare-oriented rehabilitation benefits stand extinguished under Section 31(1) read with Section 238 of the IBC once the NCLT approves a resolution plan, and the State cannot fasten such liabilities on the new corporate debtor
The High Court of Madhya Pradesh in the case of Keshav Prasad Jayaswal vs State of Madhya Pradesh [Writ Petition No. 4668 of 2011] dated September 15, 2026, has held that pre-CIRP land acquisition agreements and welfare-oriented rehabilitation benefits stand extinguished under Section 31(1) read with Section 238 of the IBC once the NCLT approves a resolution plan, and the State cannot fasten such liabilities on the new corporate debtor. The Court clarified that once the NCLT approves a resolution plan, all non-plan claims stand extinguished by operation of law and the successful resolution applicant steps into the shoes of the corporate debtor free of pre-existing liabilities.
The High Court went on to observe that overriding effect of the IBC extends to State enactments, executive instructions, and welfare-oriented policies such as the Madhya Pradesh Model Rehabilitation Policy, 2002, which cannot be invoked as an exception to fasten liabilities on the new corporate debtor. Hence, land acquisition and rehabilitation agreements executed between the State and the erstwhile corporate debtor prior to approval of the resolution plan cannot be enforced against the resolution applicant or the converted entity. The Court also expressly rejected the argument that rehabilitation claims, being welfare-oriented in nature, constitute an exception to the binding nature of an approved resolution plan.
The Court observed that under Section 31(1) of the IBC, the approved resolution plan is binding on the corporate debtor, creditors, government authorities and all stakeholders, and all non-plan claims stand extinguished by operation of law. Referring to Section 238 of the IBC, the Court noted that the Code overrides any State enactment, policy, executive instruction, or prior administrative/judicial order.
The Court placed strong reliance on the Coordinate Bench decision in Mahan Energen Limited vs. State of M.P. [W.P. No. 4131/2012], which held that pending liabilities under adjudication cannot be fastened on a resolution applicant without being placed before the Committee of Creditors after due publication under Section 15 of the IBC. The Court further observed that the agreements were executed prior to the approval of the resolution plan, and therefore the rehabilitation claims arising therefrom cannot survive against the new corporate debtor.
In a closely held quasi-partnership, exclusion of a 40% founder-shareholder from management and remuneration without due process constitutes oppression. Where a substantial shareholder of a family-owned quasi-partnership company is kept away from management and denied the fruits of the company without due process or justification, allegations of oppression under Section 241 of the Companies Act, 2013 stand confirmed
The New Delhi Bench of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) in the case of Nayan Shah vs Cheers Interactive (India) Private Limited [Company Appeal (AT) No. 122 of 2026] dated September 18, 2026, has held that in a closely held quasi-partnership, exclusion of a 40% founder-shareholder from management and remuneration without due process constitutes oppression. The NCLAT explained that where a substantial shareholder of a family-owned quasi-partnership company is kept away from management and denied the fruits of the company without due process or justification, allegations of oppression under Section 241 of the Companies Act, 2013 stand confirmed.
The NCLAT observed that Respondent No. 2, being a substantial shareholder holding more than 40% shares, was the original founder of the company and had been side-lined from management and denied the fruits of the company without due process or justification. Important financial decisions including borrowings and grant of interest-free loans to the appellants were taken in his absence, ignoring his legitimate expectation to participate in management.
The NCLAT clarified that the vacation of office of a Director under Section 167(1)(b) for absence from all board meetings during twelve months is not triggered unless notices of the meetings were actually served on the Director On the question of vacation of office of Respondent No. 2 as Director under Section 167(1)(b) of the Companies Act, 2013, the NCLAT held that there was no evidence on record to show that notices of board meetings were ever served on Respondent No. 2. The minutes of meetings were also not served on him. The Tribunal placed reliance on Raj Singh Chopra v. Jagat Singh Chopra [(2018) 206 Comp Cas 440] and held that for vacation of office under Section 167(1)(b), service of notice of the meetings which the director is alleged to have not attended is a must, and meetings held without notice are not valid meetings.
Further, the NCLAT held that the NCLT has the power under Section 242(2)(b) of the Companies Act, 2013 to direct a competitive inter se bidding process through the Swiss Challenge Method under the supervision of an independent observer, where both warring groups are willing to buy out the other and are competent to run the company. NCLAT asserted that a duly executed settlement between family factions recording the exit terms, consideration and absence of a non-compete clause is binding, and attempts to expand its scope after the payment deadline has expired will not be entertained. The Tribunal also said that where a minority shareholder first agrees to sell his shares to the majority at an agreed price and, on default, offers to buy out the majority at the same terms with a premium, the spirit of pre-emptive rights under the Articles of Association stands substantially complied with.
Bank cannot unilaterally debit the bank account or fixed deposit of a third party, such as the wife of a deceased borrower, to recover dues owed by the deceased, when there is no privity of contract between the bank and such third party
The Allahabad High Court in the case of Neha Mishra vs Reserve Bank of India [Writ – C No. – 6722 of 2026] dated September 10, 2026, has ruled that a bank cannot unilaterally debit the bank account or fixed deposit of a third party, such as the wife of a deceased borrower, to recover dues owed by the deceased, when there is no privity of contract between the bank and such third party.
The Court explained that retiral benefits such as gratuity, pension, and provident fund retain their character as protected benefits even after they are received by the beneficiary, and cannot be attached, forfeited, or appropriated by a bank through private or unilateral action. At the same time, the Court cautioned that the surreptitious transfer of a fixed deposit account between branches for the purpose of debiting the amount and then transferring it back constitutes mala fide action and is anathema to banking practice, amounting to a serious breach of trust since banks are merely custodians of bank accounts.
The High Court observed that the petitioner had no privity of contract with the Bank and that the recovery sought to be made from her account was not legally permissible and was against all banking norms. while a bank may have a legal right to proceed against the legal heir of a deceased borrower and recover dues, the same has to be done strictly as per the due process of law and not in an arbitrary, capricious, or whimsical manner.
The Court further observed that gratuity cannot be forfeited unless the conditions under Section 4(6) of the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 are met. The Court noted that there were no documents on record to show what amount of gratuity received after the husband’s death was traceable to the amount debited from the wife’s account. The Court found that the entire process adopted by the Bank of transferring the fixed deposit from one branch to another to debit the same and then transferring the account back stinks of mala fide action, both with regard to procedure and substantive law, and that the Bank tried to take advantage merely because the petitioner had a fixed deposit in the respondent-Bank.
The Court characterised the Bank’s conduct as a serious breach of trust, since banks are merely custodians of bank accounts and hold the money in trust for and on behalf of the account holder.
A Vice-President or individual Director cannot lodge a complaint on behalf of the company without a Board resolution, and an employee acting on the directions of his employer cannot be indicted for copyright infringement
The Bombay High Court in the case of Nilesh Suryakant Jangam vs State of Maharashtra [Criminal Application No. 1686 of 2019] dated August 21, 2026, has ruled that a Vice-President or individual Director cannot lodge a complaint on behalf of the company without a Board resolution, and that an employee acting on the directions of his employer on ready material cannot be indicted for copyright infringement. The Court clarified that an employee cannot be made vicariously liable in criminal law for acts of the company or its directors, since criminal liability requires sufficient evidence of an active role coupled with criminal intent.
The Court held that mere presence of allegedly infringing content in a public folder of an employee is insufficient to infer involvement in the commission of the offence, particularly where the employee was working on ready material provided by the employer. Thus, where a complaint under the Copyrights Act is filed by an unauthorised person and the employee has no privity of contract with the complainant company, the proceedings against the employee are liable to be quashed under Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure.
The Court noted that the Applicant was an ex-employee of the Complainant’s company and observed that the JMFC, Pune had taken cognizance of the complaint without establishing the existence of any agreement between the Complainant’s company and the Applicant that could hold him liable for copyright infringement. The Court further observed that the complaint was filed by Mr. Agarwal claiming to be the Vice-President of Brainvisa, but no authorisation or board resolution was produced to show that the complaint was filed on behalf of the company.
The Court recorded that the source codes alleged to have been infringed were registered in the name of Brainvisa company, and that under settled law, unless there is a resolution by the Board of Directors, the Complainant as Vice-President or individual Director has no power to lodge a complaint on behalf of the company. It was further observed that no cognizance could have been taken on a complaint filed by the Vice-President without such a resolution, and the accused could not have been indicted on that basis.
On the Applicant’s role, the Court observed that he was an employee of Accused No. 1 and had merely followed the directions of his master while working on ready material made available by Accused No. 1, including assistance in setting up the domain server. The Court held that merely finding the alleged content in a public folder of the Applicant does not amount to his involvement in the commission of the crime. The Court also recorded that the matter had been pending since 2009 and charges were not yet framed, and that there was no material on record to even suggest that the Applicant had committed any of the alleged offences.
An arbitration clause in a contract is a private legal remedy based on consensus and cannot deprive an Operational Creditor of the statutory remedy under Section 9 of IBC
The Chennai Bench of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) in the case of Posco International Corporation vs Mohana Cotton Ginning Private Limited [Company Appeal (AT) (Ins) No.1228/2019] Dated August 27, 2026, has ruled that statutory remedy under IBC overrides private arbitration arrangement and that dispute raised only in reply to demand notice does not qualify as pre-existing dispute. The NCLAT clarified that an arbitration clause in a contract is a private legal remedy based on consensus and cannot deprive an Operational Creditor of the statutory remedy under Section 9 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, since the IBC has overriding effect under Section 238.
The Tribunal held that a person to whom an operational debt is owed qualifies as an Operational Creditor under Section 5(20) of the IBC, and where the underlying transaction involves supply of goods, the resulting claim assumes the character of operational debt under Section 5(21), entitling the creditor to invoke Section 9. The phrase ‘in respect of’ in Section 5(21) of the IBC must be interpreted in a broad and purposive manner to include all persons who provide or receive operational services from the corporate debtor, and the interpretation cannot be restricted.
A dispute raised for the first time in reply to a demand notice under Section 8 of the IBC does not qualify as a pre-existing dispute, and the mere existence of communications between parties referring to inter-se claims, without any material showing that the dispute was agitated before any adjudicatory platform, is insufficient to establish a pre-existing dispute, added the Tribunal.
The Tribunal observed that the existence of an arbitration clause in a contract is a private legal remedy based on consensus between the contracting parties and is not statutorily prescribed to be mandatorily resorted to, and therefore, the availability of such private remedy would not deprive the Appellant of the statutory remedy under the IBC. The Appellate Tribunal relied on the Principal Bench’s decision in Hasan Shafiq vs. CT Technologies [(CA (AT) (Ins) No. 802/2020)], where it was held that the proceedings under the Code having been given overriding effect, the right to initiate an application under Section 9 cannot be taken away by any agreement of arbitration in the contract when the Operational Creditor elects to initiate proceedings under Section 9.
On the question of whether the Appellant qualifies as an Operational Creditor, the NCLAT held that under Section 5(20) of the IBC, an Operational Creditor means a person to whom an operational debt is owed, and under Section 5(21), operational debt includes a claim arising out of provision of goods, services, employment, or government dues. Since the parties were engaged in the transaction of supply of raw cotton, which amounts to provision of goods, the amount that fell due in the course of such transaction would assume the character of operational debt, and the Appellant would have the status of an Operational Creditor.
Where the Revenue places prima facie material showing that an Advocate was actively involved in the affairs of the entity under investigation, the protection of professional privilege does not operate as an absolute bar to search, seizure and examination of electronic devices, subject to safeguards for genuinely privileged third-party client data
The Delhi High Court in the case of Puneet Batra vs Union of India [W.P.(C) 11021/2025] dated September 18, 2026, has held that where the Revenue places prima facie material showing that an Advocate was actively involved in the affairs of the entity under investigation, the protection of professional privilege does not operate as an absolute bar to search, seizure and examination of electronic devices, subject to safeguards for genuinely privileged third-party client data. The Court also held that a search authorization under Section 67(2) of the CGST Act for the premises of a law firm covers all cabins situated within those premises, and the mere fact that one cabin is used by an Advocate does not, by itself, render the search of that cabin unauthorized.
The High Court clarified that Section 132 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 confers a privilege for the protection of the client and not a personal privilege of the Advocate. Consequently, the privilege cannot be invoked to prevent investigation into the Advocate’s own activities where those activities are themselves the subject matter of investigation. Further, the investigative material, including statements of persons examined, produced before the Court in a sealed cover during the pendency of investigation need not be furnished to the person under investigation, since disclosure cannot be directed as a matter of course where it may impede or interfere with the investigation.
The Court observed that the Petitioner’s cabin is situated inside the office of Bass Legal and forms part and parcel of the same premises, and the Petitioner’s letterhead carries the same address. On examination of the reasons to believe recorded by the competent authority, the Court was satisfied that the reasons disclosed a sufficient basis for authorizing the search of the Bass Legal premises under Section 67(2) of the CGST Act, and once the premises were validly authorized to be searched, the fact that one of the cabins within those premises was being used by the Petitioner would not, by itself, render the search of that cabin unauthorized.
On the question of advocate-client privilege, the Court observed that the protection is intended to preserve the confidentiality of communications made in the course of the professional relationship between an Advocate and his client, and that the privilege attaches to the nature of the communication or material and the circumstances in which it came into existence, and does not follow merely from the fact that the material is found in the office or possession of an Advocate. The Court further observed that the privilege under Section 132 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is, in substance, a privilege conferred for the protection of the client and not a personal privilege of the Advocate, since the statutory scheme prohibits an Advocate from disclosing a professional communication except with the express consent of the client.
The Court observed that administrative instructions and circulars may regulate the manner in which the statutory power is to be exercised but cannot curtail or extinguish a power which the statute itself confers, and in the absence of any demonstrated violation of a mandatory statutory requirement affecting the validity of the authorization or the jurisdiction to conduct the search, such procedural deviation would not, by itself, warrant declaring the entire search illegal. The Court also observed that the fact of deletion of certain files from a remote location during the search, by itself, cannot be treated as establishing any wrongdoing on the part of the Petitioner, but is a circumstance which the Respondents are entitled to examine in the course of the investigation.
A personal guarantor’s liability under a continuing guarantee is independent of the principal debtor’s insolvency proceedings and survives the conclusion of CIRP or liquidation of the corporate debtor
The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) in the case of State Bank of India vs Amit Sethi [I.A. NO.4399/2024] dated August 13, 2026, has reaffirmed that a guarantor’s liability is co-extensive with the principal debtor and is not extinguished by the latter’s CIRP or liquidation. The NCLT clarified that a personal guarantor’s liability under a continuing guarantee is independent of the principal debtor’s insolvency proceedings and survives the conclusion of CIRP or liquidation of the corporate debtor.
The NCLT further held that an individual consortium lender is competent to file an application under Section 95 of the IBC, since Section 95 permits a creditor to file an application either by itself, jointly with other creditors, or through a resolution professional, and does not require all consortium lenders to collectively institute proceedings against a personal guarantor.
On the question of discharge of the guarantor upon insolvency of the principal debtor, the Tribunal held that the liability of a guarantor is co-extensive with that of the principal debtor unless otherwise provided by the contract, and the liquidation, resolution or discharge of the principal debtor by operation of law does not automatically discharge the guarantor from liability under a valid and subsisting guarantee.
The Tribunal rejected the objection that the application was barred by limitation, holding that the liability of the principal borrower and the Personal Guarantor arise from distinct legal obligations, and the period of limitation in respect of the Personal Guarantor is to be examined with reference to the guarantee obligations and the demand raised upon the guarantor. As per Clause 8 of the Agreement of Guarantee, the guarantee is in the nature of a continuing guarantee, and the liability of the guarantor continues so long as the debt remains unpaid.
The period of limitation against a personal guarantor runs from the date of failure to comply with the demand raised under the guarantee, and not from the date of default of the principal borrower, added the Tribunal.
A court cannot set aside an arbitral award merely because the passage of time may have weakened the arbitrator’s memory, and there must be a positive demonstration that the delay impacted the findings, and the party challenging the award must point to a specific submission that was left unaddressed
The Delhi High Court in the case of Unison Hotels vs Iffco Tokio General Insurance [FAO(OS) (COMM) 29/2026] dated September 16, 2026, has held that the Single Judge erred in setting it aside on a mere ‘possibility of forgetting’ arguments, without identifying any specific finding vitiated by delay. The Court said that a mere delay in rendition of an arbitral award is insufficient to invoke Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
A court cannot set aside an arbitral award merely because the passage of time may have weakened the arbitrator’s memory, and there must be a positive demonstration that the delay impacted the findings, and the party challenging the award must point to a specific submission that was left unaddressed. Further, a plea of non-arbitrability under Clause 13 of the insurance policies, having not been specifically raised in the Statement of Defence before the Arbitral Tribunal, could not be raised for the first time in Section 34 proceedings, added the Court.
The Court observed that the Insurance Company had not specifically pleaded, in its Statement of Defence before the Arbitral Tribunal, any objection to the arbitrability of the dispute in the light of Clause 13, and the only plea actually raised was that the claims stood discharged by accord and satisfaction on account of the unconditional discharge vouchers signed by UHPL. A reading of the Statement of Defence confirmed that the Insurance Company did not categorically deny its liability to pay UHPL, and the dispute was only about the quantum payable, which squarely fell within the scope of arbitrable disputes under Clause 13.
The Arbitral Tribunal had, in fact, examined the accord and satisfaction plea exhaustively in paragraphs 15 to 32 of the award, applying Section 15 (coercion) and Section 16 (undue influence) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, and recording detailed findings that the discharge vouchers were obtained under financial duress and abuse of dominant bargaining position by the Insurance Company, added the Court.
The Court further noted that the three-member Tribunal consisted of a retired Judge of the Supreme Court, a retired Chief Justice of the Jammu & Kashmir High Court, and a retired Judge of the Delhi High Court, and that the delay was reasonably explained by the COVID-19 pandemic and the parties’ own delay in filing written submissions. The Insurance Company had, notably, not raised any objection regarding the delay at any stage before the Tribunal, nor had it filed any application under Section 14(2) of the 1996 Act seeking termination of the mandate on the ground of inordinate delay, and the plea was raised only when it found the award going against it.
Homebuyers as a class, voting through the Authorised Representative, are bound by the collective majority decision, and the Successful Resolution Applicant cannot be compelled to honour pre-CIRP refund obligations under Section 18 of RERA or the original Agreement for Sale
The Mumbai Bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) in the case of Vivek Talwar vs Rajesh Jhunjhunwala [I.A. (IB) No. 3688 of 2025] Dated September 09, 2026, has ruled that homebuyers as a class, voting through the Authorised Representative, are bound by the collective majority decision, and the Successful Resolution Applicant cannot be compelled to honour pre-CIRP refund obligations under Section 18 of RERA or the original Agreement for Sale.
On the interplay between RERA and the IBC, the Tribunal observed that there is no conflict between the two enactments as they operate in different spheres, as the IBC is a proceeding in rem focused on rehabilitation of the corporate debtor for the benefit of all stakeholders, while RERA protects the individual investor. However, in the event of any clash, RERA must give way to the IBC by virtue of Section 238 of the Code.
The NCLT dismissed the homebuyer’s application seeking to stall approval of the Resolution Plan on the ground that it did not incorporate refund or exit rights under Section 18 of RERA, holding that the IBC framework operates on collective resolution and individual remedies outside that framework are not maintainable. The Tribunal drew a clear distinction between the erstwhile promoter/developer and the Successful Resolution Applicant, holding that the SRA does not step into the shoes of the promoter until the Plan is approved, and therefore cannot be compelled to honour pre-CIRP contractual obligations under the Agreement for Sale or treated as a ‘promoter’ under RERA at the plan-approval stage.
The Tribunal reaffirmed that the commercial wisdom of the CoC is paramount and that judicial review under Section 30(2) of the IBC is confined to examining statutory compliance. Essentially, the Tribunal cannot direct modification of commercial terms or compel renegotiation of an approved Plan. Applying Section 25A(3A) of the IBC, the Tribunal held that individual members of the homebuyer class are bound by the collective decision taken through the Authorised Representative.
The Tribunal observed that the Applicants’ grievance was essentially that the Resolution Plan did not provide a refund mechanism for homebuyers wishing to withdraw from the project, which they argued was inconsistent with Section 18 of RERA and Clause 18 of the Agreement for Sale. The Tribunal noted that the SRA, whose Plan was awaiting approval, had not yet stepped into the shoes of the promoter/developer, and therefore could not be treated as the ‘promoter’ of the project at that stage. The responsibility of the SRA to complete the project would only begin upon approval of the Plan by the Adjudicating Authority.
Legal Updates (September 07 – September 12, 2026)
Legal Updates (September 07 – September 12, 2026)
CASE UPDATES
Once the Governing Body of a recognised Stock Exchange annuls a trade on the ground that it was a fictitious transaction, the trade is treated as having come to an end and ceased to exist, and the question of physical delivery of the shares pursuant to such annulled trade does not arise at all
The Bombay High Court in the case of Bipin Kantilal Kapadia vs Stock Exchange Bombay [First Appeal No. 2274 of 2025] dated September 11, 2026, has held that once the Governing Body of a recognised Stock Exchange annuls a trade on the ground that it was a fictitious transaction, the trade is treated as having come to an end and ceased to exist, and the question of physical delivery of the shares pursuant to such annulled trade does not arise at all. Further, the indemnity under Bye-Law No. 315J of the Bye-Laws of the Stock Exchange applies only to suits or proceedings in respect of matters purporting to be done under the Bye-Laws and Regulations and specifically arises in the context of references made under the chapter of ‘References and Appeals to Dispute Resolutions’, and cannot be read to mean that the indemnity applies in every situation to the Exchange.
The High Court went on to clarify that Bye-Law No. 92, which deals with the non-liability of the Clearing House in respect of the title, ownership, genuineness, regularity or validity of any security, transfer deed or any other document passing through the Clearing House, cannot be applied to absolve the Exchange from refunding the amount paid by a member towards an annulled trade. Thus, the ultimate liability to refund the amount deposited by a member towards an annulled trade lies squarely on the Stock Exchange, regardless of whether the said amount was distributed to the respective receiving members, since the member only seeks refund of the amount deposited with the Exchange and not damages or loss suffered on account of trading.
The Court further observed that once the annulment of the trade concerning the disputed shares had taken place, the obligation, if any, of the member broker towards the Appellant would not survive, and consequently there could be no action which the Appellant could possibly bring against a member broker. The Court noted that there was no privity of contract between the Appellant and member broker considering that the very process of trading as explained in the Written Statement showed that while effecting purchase/sale orders on the trading system, there is no one-to-one contract contemplated between a prospective buyer and prospective seller of shares.
The Court further observed that the bar to initiate proceedings against the Respondent-Exchange under Bye-Law No. 315J of the Bye-Laws would not be attracted to the facts of the present case, inasmuch as the said Bye-Law categorically provides that no party shall bring or prosecute any suit or proceeding against the Exchange in respect of any matter or thing purporting to be done under the Bye-Laws or Regulations, and it comes specifically under the chapter of ‘References and Appeals to Dispute Resolutions’ and applies only when a reference is made under the relevant Bye-Laws. Since there was no reference of any dispute as envisaged under Bye-Laws 315B to 315L, the submission of the Respondent-Exchange that it be protected on account of the aforesaid indemnity was rejected.
Gross turnover and foreign remittances do not, without more, constitute ‘proceeds of crime’ and freezing disproportionate to the alleged predicate offence cannot be sustained
The Bombay High Court in the case of Coda Payments India vs Dy. Director, Directorate of Enforcement [Criminal Appeal (ST) No. 13953 of 2025] dated September 02, 2026, has held that the Adjudicating Authority’s failure to record an independent, reasoned finding under Section 8(2) of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) that the attached properties constituted ‘proceeds of crime’ was a fatal statutory defect that could not be cured by the Appellate Tribunal. The Court explained that PMLA confers extensive powers upon the Enforcement Directorate, but those powers are circumscribed by statutory safeguards. Section 8(2) of the PMLA mandates the Adjudicating Authority to record an independent, reasoned finding that the attached property constitutes ‘proceeds of crime’ after considering the reply, hearing the aggrieved person, and evaluating all relevant material.
The Court noted a clear distinction between: (a) recording that the material is sufficient for continuation of retention/freezing for purposes of adjudication; and (b) recording the statutory finding that the property is involved in money laundering. The Court said that a bank account belonging to a person under investigation is not, by that fact alone, ‘proceeds of crime’, and the turnover of a company is not, merely because it is large, amounts to proceeds of crime.
The Court further observed that the Appellate Tribunal itself noticed the statutory requirement under Section 8(2) of the PMLA but erred in stating that it could ‘cure the defect’ by itself recording the finding. The High Court observed that if an Adjudicating Authority omits the mandatory finding under Section 8(2), the Appellate Tribunal cannot thereafter supply that finding based on the same material, as that would render the statutory safeguard optional. However, despite this observation, the Tribunal did not set aside the order or require the statutory authority to undertake the mandated exercise.
The Court emphasized that an Appellate Authority may affirm, reverse or modify a finding recorded by the authority below, but cannot ordinarily supply a mandatory statutory finding which the Original Authority was required to record after undertaking the statutory adjudicatory exercise. The principle that an order passed by a statutory authority must stand or fall on the reasons contained therein, as laid down by the Constitution Bench in Mohinder Singh Gill vs. Chief Election Commissioner, New Delhi & Ors. [(1978) 1 SCC 405], was held to be of direct relevance.
The Court also observed that the PMLA is concerned with ‘proceeds of crime’ as defined under Section 2(1)(u), and that the Supreme Court in Vijay Madanlal Choudhary & Ors. v. Union of India [(2023) 12 SCC 1], held that the expression ‘proceeds of crime’ must be construed strictly and that every property recovered or attached in connection with a ‘scheduled offence’ cannot, merely by reason of such attachment or connection, be regarded as ‘proceeds of crime’. The existence of a ‘scheduled offence’, by itself, does not render every asset or property of the person or entity concerned as ‘proceeds of crime’.
The Court found that gross business turnover cannot by itself establish that the entirety of the turnover represents ‘proceeds of crime’, and the fact that money has moved from India to an overseas group entity may be relevant to an investigation but does not, without more, establish that every amount in the company’s bank accounts constitute ‘proceeds of crime’.
MSME which fails to invoke the RBI’s 2016 Revival and Rehabilitation Framework at the SMA/NPA classification stage and instead chooses to challenge bank action under Section 17 of the SARFAESI Act, cannot turn around and seek Framework relief through a writ petition after Section 13(4) proceedings have commenced
The Calcutta High Court in the case of Debpara Tea Company vs State Bank of India [W.P.O. No. 198 of 2026] dated September 02, 2026, has held that an MSME which fails to invoke the RBI’s 2016 Revival and Rehabilitation Framework at the SMA/NPA classification stage and instead chooses to challenge bank action under Section 17 of the SARFAESI Act, cannot turn around and seek Framework relief through a writ petition after Section 13(4) proceedings have commenced.
The Court clarified that while the Framework for Revival and Rehabilitation of MSMEs dated 17th March 2016 is mandatory and binding on banks and secured creditors under the SARFAESI Act and must be followed before classifying an MSME loan account as NPA, it is equally incumbent on the MSME concerned to be vigilant and bring to the notice of the bank its status as an MSME by producing authenticated and verifiable documents at the appropriate stage.
An MSME that allows the entire process for enforcement of security interest under the SARFAESI Act to proceed, or that having challenged such action before a court or tribunal and having failed, cannot be permitted to raise the plea of being an MSME at a belated stage to thwart the bank’s recovery actions. Furthermore, where an MSME has invoked the statutory remedy under Section 17 of the SARFAESI Act before the Debt Recovery Tribunal, its grievance regarding the NPA classification and the alleged non-following of the Framework cannot be entertained in a writ proceeding under Article 226 of the Constitution.
Where claims for idling of resources, additional overheads, material at site and loss of profit were allowed without evidence, and reliance was placed on conciliation proceedings to decide the arbitration, the arbitral award deserves to be strike down
The Delhi High Court in the case of Eco Green Buildtech vs Vikartan Infrastructure [O.M.P. (COMM) 293/2023] dated September 10, 2026, has held that where claims for idling of resources, additional overheads, material at site and loss of profit were allowed without evidence, and reliance was placed on conciliation proceedings to decide the arbitration, the arbitral award deserves to be strike down. The Court said that where a tribunal records concessions or admissions during conciliation and later uses them to decide the arbitration, the award is patently illegal. Reference was made to the Apex Court’s decision in Moti Ram v. Ashok Kumar [(2011) 1 SCC 466], wherein it was emphasised that the element of confidentiality is essential to mediation and conciliation, and statements made therein cannot be used against the maker if settlement fails.
The High Court held that the twin conditions of breach and consequential actual loss or damage is mandatory. The expertise of the arbitrator cannot substitute the claimant’s onus to prove actual loss, and the quantification based on personal experience, trade usage, or CPWD circulars without evidence is patently illegal. Following the Supreme Court ruling in Unibros v. All India Radio [2023 SCC OnLine SC 1366], the Court reiterated that a party claiming loss of profit must establish delay, non-attribution of delay, status as an established contractor, and credible evidence of loss. The formula is only an estimating tool and cannot dispense with evidentiary requirements.
The Court observed that the arbitral tribunal held the petitioner responsible for delay and breach of contractual obligations, and that no corresponding breach on the part of the respondent was established. The tribunal further held that the MOU was binding upon the parties but did not constitute novation of the original contract. The tribunal partly allowed the claims relating to work executed, WCT, idling/under-utilisation of machinery, additional overhead, material lying at site and loss of profit/profitability, and rejected the claims towards escalation and other heads, while rejecting all the counterclaims of the petitioner.
The Court noted that the proceedings recorded during the conciliation were relied upon while adjudicating the claims in arbitration, which was impermissible as the proceedings during conciliation cannot be considered and relied upon in case the arbitration of dispute is necessitated. The Court further observed that the tribunal relied upon personal experience in the field of construction and CPWD circulars MAN-150 and 169 for quantifying overhead expenses at 7.5% of the contract value, without producing evidence of additional overhead expenditure incurred due to breach of contract. The Court further noted that the CPWD circulars relied upon by the tribunal were not confronted to the petitioner, which was in violation of Section 24(3) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act.
Auction conducted by the Tahsildar for recovery of government dues during the subsistence of SARFAESI enforcement measures, and after symbolic possession had already been taken under Section 13(4), is liable to be quashed as not in conformity with the SARFAESI Act
The Bombay High Court in the case of Indian Overseas Bank vs State of Maharashtra [Writ Petition No. 10120 of 2022] dated September 11, 2026, has held that mere attachment without mandatory proclamation under the MLR Code and MRLR Rules, coupled with non-registration with CERSAI, strips the State of priority over a secured creditor’s dues under Section 26E of the SARFAESI Act. The Court reaffirmed that under Section 26E of the SARFAESI Act, a secured creditor’s dues enjoy priority over all government dues, including arrears of land revenue, taxes, cesses and rates payable to the State or local authority.
The Court also clarified that the State authorities cannot claim priority over a secured creditor merely by attaching the defaulter’s property. A valid attachment must be followed by due proclamation in the manner prescribed under the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966 and the Maharashtra Realization of Land Revenue Rules, 1967, including beating of drum, affixation on a conspicuous part of the property, and display on the Talathi’s notice board. Accordingly, non-registration of the State’s claim or attachment order with CERSAI attracts the consequences under Section 26C(2) of the SARFAESI Act and weakens the State’s claim of priority over the secured creditor.
The High Court also held that an auction conducted by the Tahsildar for recovery of government dues during the subsistence of SARFAESI enforcement measures, and after symbolic possession had already been taken under Section 13(4), is liable to be quashed as not in conformity with the SARFAESI Act. The fact that the land was purchased by the Talathi on behalf of the State Government for a nominal price, did not create any valid title in favour of the State, and the consequential mutation entry recording the State as occupant was directed to be deleted within four weeks.
A personal guarantor cannot escape arbitral jurisdiction merely on the ground that he did not append his signature to the Loan Agreement in his personal capacity, where the contractual architecture treats the guarantee as woven into the very fabric of the loan documentation
The Supreme Court in the case of National Skill Development Corporation vs Surya Wires Private Limited [S.L.P. (C) No.10030 of 2026] dated September 08, 2026, has ruled that where a Personal Guarantee is contractually deemed part of the Loan Agreement ‘as if set out herein in extension’, the arbitration clause therein stands incorporated by reference, and the guarantor cannot be deleted from the arbitral array merely because he signed only in his personal capacity. The Court explained that a Personal Guarantee expressly enumerated as a ‘Facility Agreement’ in the Schedules to a Loan Agreement, and deemed thereunder to form part of the Loan Agreement ‘as if set out herein in extension’, is an integral and inseparable component of the Loan Agreement for all purposes, including dispute resolution.
The Court said that the phrase ‘as if the provisions thereof were set out herein in extension’ operates as a deeming fiction internal to the contract, binding every Facility Agreement, including the Personal Guarantee, within the same legal and arbitral framework as the Loan Agreement. Further, contemporaneity of execution of the Loan Agreement and the Personal Guarantee, coupled with the Personal Guarantee being a mandatory pre-disbursement condition under Schedule I, reinforces the inference that the parties intended the entire cluster of documents to constitute a single, composite transaction.
The Apex Court also held that a non-signatory personal guarantor cannot escape arbitral jurisdiction merely on the ground that he did not append his signature to the Loan Agreement in his personal capacity, where the contractual architecture treats the guarantee as woven into the very fabric of the loan documentation. The Court reaffirmed that arbitration must remain sufficiently elastic to accommodate multi-party and multi-contract arrangements, and that commercial reality cannot be allowed to outgrow the arbitral mechanism, provided consent and party autonomy are traceable to the contractual language.
The Court noted that a general reference to another contract does not incorporate its arbitration clause, whereas a general reference to a standard form does, as reaffirmed in Inox Wind v. Thermocables [(2018) 2 SCC 519]. The Constitution Bench decision in Cox and Kings v. SAP India [(2024) 4 SCC 1] was cited for the proposition that ‘parties’ under Section 2(1)(h) read with Section 7 includes non-signatories whose conduct may indicate consent to be bound. The Court also relied on ASF Buildtech v. Shapoorji Pallonji [(2025) 9 SCC 76], observing that arbitration must remain sufficiently elastic to accommodate multi-party and multi-contract arrangements without compromising consent and party autonomy.
A company registered under the Companies Act is a distinct juristic person from its directors and shareholders, hence, a loan disbursed directly into a director’s personal bank account cannot, by any stretch, be treated as a financial debt of the corporate entity
The Chennai Bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) in the case of Rajesh Kumar Saraf HUF vs Veremax Technologie Services [CP/(IB)/202/CHE/2024] dated August 07, 2026, has ruled that a company registered under the Companies Act is a distinct juristic person from its directors and shareholders, hence, a loan disbursed directly into a director’s personal bank account cannot, by any stretch, be treated as a financial debt of the corporate entity. Accordingly, the NCLT laid down a three-fold ‘disbursement’ test, i.e., “Credit of Debt, Principle Purpose, and Application of Debt”, and held that all three limbs must be satisfied before a corporate entity can be pushed into Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP).
The Bench placed significant weight on the Record of Financial Information from the NeSL portal, which the Petitioner itself had submitted, identifying the ‘Debtor’ as the individual director and not the company, turning the Petitioner’s own evidence against it. The Bench said that Petitioner must place contemporaneous documentary evidence, board resolutions, correspondence, and utilisation proof, on record to demonstrate that the funds were received and applied for the corporate debtor’s business; mere assertion is insufficient.
Essentially, the Tribunal clarified that where the NeSL record identifies the company only as a ‘Guarantor’ to the individual borrower, the Petitioner cannot maintain a Section 7 petition against the company as a Corporate Debtor without invoking the proceedings in the capacity of a Guarantor.
The Tribunal reiterated that under Section 7 of the IBC, a Financial Creditor can initiate CIRP strictly against a Corporate Debtor upon proving that a financial debt was disbursed to the Corporate Debtor against the consideration for the time value of money, and that the Corporate Debtor committed a default in repayment thereof.
The Tribunal laid down the well-settled proposition of law that a corporate entity registered under the Companies Act possesses a separate and distinct legal personality from its directors or shareholders. A financial disbursement made directly to an individual director’s bank account cannot, by any stretch of imagination, be treated as a financial debt extended to the corporate entity, in the absence of direct corporate borrowing resolutions and direct receipt of funds by the company. The Petitioner had not brought on record any further documents to substantiate that the disbursement was done in furtherance of the Corporate Debtor.
Copyright registration is voluntary and not mandatory, and protection arises automatically upon creation of an original work, with registration providing only prima facie evidence of ownership
The Rajasthan High Court in the case of Sanjay Bhatt vs State of Rajasthan [S.B. Criminal Miscellaneous (Petition) No. 1728/2016] dated August 17, 2026, has held that t copyright registration is voluntary and not mandatory, and protection arises automatically upon creation of an original work, with registration providing only prima facie evidence of ownership.
The Court also applied the three-judge bench principles from Neeharika Infrastructure Private Limited versus State of Maharashtra and others [2021 SCC Online SC 315], holding that the power of quashing should be exercised sparingly in the ‘rarest of rare cases’, and the court cannot embark upon an enquiry as to the reliability or genuineness of allegations in the FIR. The Court noted that the orders relied upon by the petitioner from the Copyright Board and IPAB were passed in 2011, and the police had already concluded investigation and drawn a charge sheet against the petitioner, making the petition liable for dismissal.
The Trademarks Act, 1999 governs the registration, protection and enforcement of trademarks, with Section 2(1)(zb) defining trademark, and infringement provides both civil and criminal remedies. The Court also noted that the petitioner had not brought on record any material to show that a copyright or trademark had been issued in his favour, and that there is no mandate requiring registration for an action against infringement of copyright.
The Court applied the principles from Krishika Lula versus Shyam Vitthalrao Devkatta [2016 (1) WLC (SC) Crl 171], observing that no copyright subsists in the title of work and the complainant is not entitled to relief on such basis except in an action for passing off or in respect of registered trademark comprising such titles. The Court held that the issue regarding ownership of ‘Dandi Salt’ and ‘Dandi Namak’ is a factual dispute, and it is not mandatory that a party must possess registration under the Copyright Act to claim any right on the title. The dispute regarding infringement is actionable both under civil law and criminal law, with the Copyright Act and the Trademark Act providing for penal provisions and criminal action.
Statutory definition of ‘default’ under Section 3(12) of the IBC requires the debt to be both ‘due’ and ‘payable’, and mere accrual or book entry, without present enforceability, does not constitute default
The New Delhi Principal Bench of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) in the case of Siddharth Satish Katariya vs Central Bank of India [Comp. App. (AT) (Ins) No. 1286 of 2026] dated September 01, 2026, has held that the statutory definition of ‘default’ under Section 3(12) of the IBC requires the debt to be both ‘due’ and ‘payable’, and mere accrual or book entry, without present enforceability, does not constitute default.
For the Cash Credit facility, the Tribunal held that although interest was debited on Feb 29, 2020, and nominally payable on March 10, 2020, the RBI COVID-19 Circulars dated March 27, 2020, and May 23, 2020, interdicted recovery of interest on CC/OD facilities from March 01, 2020, to Aug 31, 2020, rendering the debt not ‘due and payable’ on the claimed default date. The Tribunal also held that the textual distinction between ‘moratorium’ for term loans and ‘deferment’ for CC/OD facilities in the RBI Circulars does not alter the substantive Section 3(12) inquiry, since the ‘due and payable’ requirement must be satisfied regardless of the label attached to the regulatory relief.
A partnership at will stands dissolved from the date mentioned in the written notice of dissolution, or where no date is specified, from the date of communication of the notice, and the reconstituted firm has no right to retain the assets of the dissolved firm unless it purchases them from the erstwhile partnership
The Supreme Court in the case of V Sumitra Reddy vs K. Ranganadha Reddy [Civil Appeal No. 8167 of 2017] dated September 09, 2026, has clarified that in a partnership at will, dissolved under Section 43 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, the date of dissolution governs only the ascertainment of profits and losses, while the valuation of immovable assets for distribution must reflect the value on the date of actual assessment by the Commissioner. The Court said that a partnership at will stands dissolved from the date mentioned in the written notice of dissolution, or where no date is specified, from the date of communication of the notice, and the reconstituted firm has no right to retain the assets of the dissolved firm unless it purchases them from the erstwhile partnership.
The Court also clarified that the date of dissolution specified in the preliminary decree is relevant only for ascertaining the profits and losses of the firm up to that date and has no bearing on the right of the partners to receive the value of their share in the residue of the assets after liquidation.
Essentially, the Apex Court ruled that upon dissolution, every partner is entitled under Section 46 read with Section 48 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, to have the property of the firm applied in payment of debts and liabilities, and the surplus distributed among the partners in their profit-sharing ratio after the assets are converted into money. Accordingly, restricting the outgoing partner’s share to the value of the immovable property prevailing as on the date of dissolution would be inequitable, grossly unfair, and wholly impractical, particularly where the reconstituted firm has continued to retain and use the partnership assets without purchasing them from the dissolved firm.
The Court noted that the partnership was at will under Section 7 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, since no provision was made for its duration or determination. Under Section 43, a partnership at will can be dissolved by any partner giving written notice of his intention to dissolve the firm, and the firm stands dissolved from the date mentioned in the notice or, if no date is mentioned, from the date of communication of the notice.
The Court examined Sections 46, 47 and 48 of the Partnership Act. Section 46 provides that on dissolution, every partner is entitled to have the property of the firm applied in payment of the firm’s debts and liabilities, and the surplus distributed among the partners according to their rights. Section 48 prescribes the mode of settlement of accounts, including payment of debts to third parties, repayment of advances and capital, and division of the residue among partners in their profit-sharing ratio. The Court emphasised that a partnership firm is not a separate legal entity, and the partnership property belongs to all the partners in proportion to their shares.
The Court further observed that the reconstituted firm had no right to retain the assets of the dissolved firm unless all partners agreed to settle accounts and pay the outgoing partner his share in the value of the assets. The new partnership could have retained the land only by purchasing it from the erstwhile partnership, which was not done.
Owner’s share of Gross Sale Proceeds constitutes consideration under the Maharashtra Stamp Act, and that stamp duty must be computed as on the date of execution using available FSI and ASR, even where the landowner, not the developer, challenges the assessment
The Bombay High Court in the case of VTP Homee Landmark (LLP) vs State of Maharashtra Through Ministry of Revenue [Writ Petition No. 10120 of 2019] dated August 28, 2026, has held that an owner’s share of Gross Sale Proceeds constitutes consideration under the Maharashtra Stamp Act, and that stamp duty must be computed as on the date of execution using available FSI and ASR, even where the landowner, not the developer, challenges the assessment. The Court thus held that the Development Agreement dated 2 November 2012 was correctly treated as an instrument falling under Article 5(g-a)(i) of Schedule I to the Maharashtra Stamp Act, 1958, because the instrument relates to giving authority or power to a promoter or developer for construction on, development of, and sale or transfer of immovable property.
The Court emphasised that the revenue sharing arrangement constitutes consideration for the development rights given under the document, and the consideration is not confined to the refundable security deposit. Further, for determining the market value, the agreed share of the Gross Sale Proceeds can be computed as on the date of execution by considering the development potential, applicable ASR, and the rates of the constructed tenements, and the Respondent Authorities were justified in taking the higher valuation resulting from such consideration.
The Court observed that the real nature of the document had to be determined first. Although the Petitioner is the owner of the land and not the developer, Article 5(g-a)(i) does not require that the person presenting the document must himself be the developer; the provision applies to any instrument ‘if relating to giving authority or power to a promoter or a developer, by whatever name called, for construction on, development of, or sale or transfer (in any manner whatsoever) of, any immovable property’. On a reading of the Development Agreement as a whole, the Second Party was described as a ‘Promoter / Builder’ and was given the right to enter upon the property, develop it, construct buildings, market the project, sell units, arrange funds, obtain permissions, and execute agreements for sale, with the First Party required to execute a Power of Attorney in favour of the Second Party. The mere fact that the Petitioner is the owner therefore does not take the document outside Article 5(g-a)(i).
On the question of consideration, the Court observed that merely because no fixed amount was payable on the date of execution, it cannot be said that there was no consideration; the consideration was agreed in another form, linked with the Gross Sale Proceeds and to become payable as the project progressed. The Court further observed that the parties’ use of the words ‘Principal to Principal’ and the absence of an intention to create a partnership may be relevant to whether a partnership was created, but the question for stamp duty is whether development rights have been given and what consideration is recorded in the document for valuation; the description used by the parties cannot change the actual rights and obligations created by the document.
The Court further observed that future Gross Sale Proceeds can be treated as present consideration, and stamp duty has to be considered with reference to the date of the instrument, and the Authority is not required to wait until the project is completed and actual flats are sold. The argument that such calculation would amount to taxing future profits was rejected, as the amount is being considered only for determining the market value on which stamp duty is payable. The argument regarding double stamp duty was also rejected, as the Development Agreement and the subsequent sale of a completed unit are separate instruments concerning different stages of the transaction.
Legal Updates (August 31 – September 05, 2026)
Legal Updates (Aug 31 – Sep 05, 2026)
CASE UPDATES
If applicant is a Director and Key Managerial Person of the company with dominion and control over its funds, and had sanctioned loan transactions without proper due diligence, and facilitated diversion of funds through related-party transactions in violation of approved board resolutions, grant of bail is not warranted
The Delhi High Court in the case of Achal Kumar Jindal vs State (NCT of Delhi) [BAIL APPL. NO. 2224/2026] dated August 24, 2026, has held that in cases of economic offences involving siphoning and diversion of funds from companies through related-party transactions and shell entities, the High Court cannot grant bail mechanically by merely observing that the case arises out of a commercial transaction and the dispute is of a civil nature, as held by the Supreme Court in Centrum Financial Services Ltd. v. State of NCT of Delhi [(2022) 13 SCC 286].
The Court pointed that the relevant considerations for grant of bail include the nature and seriousness of the offence, the character of the evidence and circumstances peculiar to the accused, the likelihood of the accused fleeing from justice, the impact of release on prosecution witnesses and society, and the likelihood of tampering, as enumerated by the Supreme Court in Anil Kumar Yadav v. State (NCT of Delhi) [(2018) 12 SCC 129].
The Court held that where the applicant is a Director and Key Managerial Person of the company with dominion and control over its funds, and is found to have actively participated in board meetings, approved board resolutions, sanctioned loan transactions without proper due diligence, and facilitated diversion of funds through related-party transactions in violation of approved board resolutions, the grant of bail is not warranted, particularly where the applicant has a history of non-cooperation, violated court undertakings, and remained an absconder for a substantial period.
The Court observed that for the purposes of establishing criminal breach of trust, the entrustment of property need not necessarily be of the complainant themselves, as the wheels of criminal law can be set in motion by any person and there is no locus standi that a complainant needs to prove in order to inform investigative agencies about the commission of a cognizable offence. The Court also observed that a director is not only an agent but is in the position of a trustee of the company’s money and property, and therefore has dominion and control over the same.
The Court rejected the applicant’s contention that all loans, except one, had been repaid, observing that it is the original act of misappropriation, siphoning off, diversion and misutilisation that forms the offending act, and subsequent repayment, which may have happened with collusion, has no bearing on the same. The Court further observed that the management of the company is separate from its owners, i.e., the shareholders, and whatever be the shares held by the applicant, the fact that he is the Executive Director of ECL is the material fact having a bearing on the allegations.
The Court noted that economic offences deserve a compounded scrutiny, as financial crimes take place with cool calculation with the sole intent to hurt and injure the victims, and while conventional crimes may occur owing to a rise in passions, a financial crime is premeditated. Thus, holding that economic offences, committed with “cool calculation” merit compounded scrutiny, the Court dismissed the regular bail application of a director and KMP of an NBFC accused of siphoning Rs. 315 crores raised as debt from investors and creditors.
If a cooperative housing society member is aggrieved both by the general body resolutions approving redevelopment and by the development agreement executed in favour of a developer, the member cannot maintain a bifurcated challenge by filing a dispute before the Cooperative Court against the resolutions and a civil suit against the development agreement
The Bombay High Court in the case of Baliram Totaram Misal vs Saujanya Co-operative Housing Society [Writ Petition No.15791 of 2025] Decided on August 27, 2026, has held that aggrieved members cannot split their challenge by filing a separate dispute before the Cooperative Court against resolutions while pursuing a civil suit against the development agreement. The Court explained that where a cooperative housing society member is aggrieved both by the general body resolutions approving redevelopment and by the development agreement executed in favour of a developer, the member cannot maintain a bifurcated challenge by filing a dispute before the Cooperative Court against the resolutions and a civil suit against the development agreement.
Since the developer acquires interest in the society’s property prior to the filing of the dispute and cannot be impleaded in Cooperative Court proceedings under Section 94(3)(a) of the Maharashtra Co-operative Societies Act, 1960 (MCS Act), the correct and only effective remedy is a composite civil suit before the Civil Court, which can adjudicate the validity of both the resolutions and the development agreement together.
The High Court noted that Section 91 of the MCS Act requires twin conditions to be met for the Cooperative Court to assume jurisdiction: the dispute must concern enumerated subject matters, and the parties must fall within the categories specified in clauses (a) to (e) of Section 91(1). While the second condition was clearly satisfied since the Petitioners are members challenging the Society, the first condition relating to subject matter was the crux of the dispute.
The Court observed that a member aggrieved by a cooperative housing society’s redevelopment process cannot segregate the challenge by filing a dispute before the Cooperative Court against general body resolutions and a separate civil suit against the development agreement and power of attorney. The proper remedy is a single composite civil suit before the Civil Court. Further, where the developer has already acquired interest in the society’s property prior to the filing of the dispute, the developer cannot be impleaded as a party under Section 94(3)(a) of the MCS Act, since the provision applies only to acquisition of interest during pendency of the dispute.
The Court found that the plaint contained no averment that redevelopment constituted the object or business of the society, nor that the bye-laws had been amended to include redevelopment as one of the objects under Section 154B(1)(17) of the MCS Act, which was sufficient to reject the dispute under Order VII Rule 11(d) of the Code. Since the redevelopment process commenced in 2016, well before the 2019 amendments to the MCS Act, and the society’s bye-laws had not been amended to include redevelopment as an object, the Court observed that the dispute did not touch the business of the society and was outside the Cooperative Court’s jurisdiction under Section 91.
Where a company is employed as a facade or conduit for shielding assets from creditors, the Court may look beyond the corporate structure. However, such piercing is fact-specific and must be based on cogent material establishing that the corporate structure was used to defeat the decree holder’s rights
The Delhi High Court in the case of Daichii Sankyo vs Malvinder Mohan Singh [EX.APPL.(OS) 3764/2022] dated August 31, 2026, has held that procedure is meant to advance the cause of justice and not retard it, and Courts must ensure that decrees are executed not only for the satisfaction of the decree holder but to uphold the majesty of the administration of justice. The Court observed that the difficulties of a litigant begin when a decree is obtained, and that judgment debtors use procedural complications and delays to defeat the rights of decree holders, making Courts instrumental in defrauding creditors.
On the doctrine of reverse corporate veil piercing, the Court held that the separate juristic personality of a company cannot be permitted to become an instrument for defeating the administration of justice or frustrating judicial orders. Where a company is employed as a facade or conduit for shielding assets from creditors, the Court may look beyond the corporate structure. However, such piercing is fact-specific and must be based on cogent material establishing that the corporate structure was used to defeat the decree holder’s rights.
On the necessity of a forensic audit, the Court held that the factual foundation must precede the legal conclusion, and that reconstruction of the chronology of share transactions, fund flows, and the role of directors, officers and banks cannot be effectively undertaken without a forensic examination.
Vicarious liability under Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 cannot be fastened by mere designation or association. Further, the criminal liability under Section 141 cannot be imposed merely by association and the role attributable to each accused must be independently discernible
The Punjab & Haryana High Court in the case of Deepak Aggarwal vs Rajinder Earthmover Filling Station Pvt Limited [CRM-M-24223-2024 (O & M)] dated September 04, 2026, has held that vicarious liability under Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 cannot be fastened by mere designation or association. The Court also issued prospective directions requiring every complainant to mandatorily annex the Corporate Identification Number and certified Form DIR-12 to complaints under Section 138/141 NI Act against corporate accused.
The Court explained that vicarious liability under Section 141 of the NI Act is person-specific and arises from being in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the business of the company at the time the offence was committed, and not merely from holding a designation or office in the company. The Court also said that a Managing Director or Joint Managing Director is deemed to be in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the business of the company by virtue of the office held, and no further specific averment is required in the complaint; however, for any other officer, the complaint must disclose the position, duties, and role in regard to the issue and dishonour of the cheque.
The Court examined Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, which creates vicarious liability for offences committed by companies, and noted that the liability of a person arises from being in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the business of the company at the relevant time, and not merely from holding a designation or office in the company. The Court also added that a complaint need not mechanically reproduce the exact phraseology of Section 141 if the substance of the allegations, read as a whole, discloses the factual basis for such liability, but the criminal liability under Section 141 cannot be imposed merely by association and the role attributable to each accused must be independently discernible.
The Court also noted the recent Supreme Court decision in HDFC Bank Ltd. vs. State of Maharashtra [(2025) 9 SCC 653], which clarified that the complaint need not mechanically reproduce the exact phraseology of Section 141 if the substance of the allegations, read as a whole, discloses the factual basis for such liability, but the criminal liability under Section 141 is person-specific and cannot be imposed merely by association. On the question of directors who had resigned, the Court reiterated that a director who has not signed the cheque and had resigned from the company before the cheque was issued or dishonoured cannot be held liable, provided there is unimpeachable evidence of such resignation communicated to the statutory authorities.
Goodwill of a partnership is a partnership asset, and only partners have a right to the property of the firm subject to contract. Further, no third party can claim a right in the assets and properties of the firm
The Calcutta High Court in the case of Fox and Mandal vs Somabrata Mandal [IA NO. GA/4/2023] dated August 24, 2026, held that goodwill belongs exclusively to the firm and not to individual partners or their heirs, and the “classic trinity” of reputation, misrepresentation, and damage to goodwill are the basic ingredients to succeed in an action for passing off, and misrepresentation lies at the heart of such an action. A prior user has a superior right and is entitled to protection against any subsequent user of an identical or deceptively similar mark.
The Court also emphasised that goodwill of a partnership is a partnership asset, and only partners have a right to the property of the firm subject to contract; no third party can claim a right in the assets and properties of the firm. Registration is inconsequential in an action for passing off, and the plaintiff can succeed even upon showing likelihood of injury or damage, without proving actual damages.
The Court observed that the plaintiff no. 1 is the admitted prior user of the marks “Fox and Mandal”, “Fox & Mandal” and “F&M” since 1896, while the defendants are subsequent adopters claiming user only since 1986. The reputation and goodwill of the firm remained undisputed. The Court noted that goodwill generated by a partnership is a partnership asset and belongs to the firm, not to individual partners or their heirs. The mark “Fox & Mandal” is the property of the firm and cannot be claimed by any individual partner or his legal heirs.
A borrower who has fully repaid the loan is entitled to assume that the Bank will preserve and return the original title documents. The obligation to maintain proper custody, identification, retrieval and return rests solely on the Bank and cannot be shifted to the borrower merely because the borrower did not immediately seek return of the documents
The Bombay High Court in the case of In Vogue Creations vs State Bank of India [Writ Petition No. of 2025] dated September 02, 2026, has held that a borrower who has fully repaid the loan is entitled to assume that the Bank will preserve and return the original title documents. Thus, the obligation to maintain proper custody, identification, retrieval and return rests solely on the Bank and cannot be shifted to the borrower merely because the borrower did not immediately seek return of the documents.
The Court observed that a borrower who has fully discharged the loan is entitled to proceed on the legitimate assumption that the Bank will preserve and return the original title documents, and that the burden of maintaining a proper system for preservation, identification, retrieval and return of documents rests solely on the Bank and cannot be shifted to the borrower merely because the borrower did not immediately seek their return.
The Court clarified that internal administrative matters such as shifting of branch premises, transfer of records or change of personnel are within the Bank’s exclusive domain, and the obligation to preserve and return title documents does not depend upon the borrower reminding the Bank to perform that obligation. Specifically, the High Court held that the RBI Circular dated 13 September 2023 on Responsible Lending Conduct – Release of Movable/Immovable Property Documents on Repayment/Settlement of Personal Loans cannot be applied retrospectively to a period starting from 2003, but the prescribed compensation of Rs. 5,000 per day will apply prospectively from 1 December 2023 onwards where the loss of original documents is admitted and continuing prejudice is established.
Moving ahead, the Court emphasised that the proceedings before the Banking Ombudsman and a writ petition operate in different fields, and the Ombudsman’s advisory compensation of Rs. 1 lakh does not exhaust the borrower’s remedy. Further, the compensation under the RBI Circular is expressly without prejudice to the borrower’s right to seek any other compensation under applicable law. Strongly, the High Court directed that the bank is required to assist the borrower in obtaining duplicate or certified copies of the lost documents, bear the associated costs, and complete the reconstructed title record, including all necessary endorsements, affidavits, indemnities, certifications and supporting documents, within 12 weeks of the order, failing which the daily compensation continues to accrue.
Definition of ‘associate’ under Section 79(2)(g) of IBC cannot be expanded beyond its statutory text, and procedural irregularities such as shorter notice periods or absence of forensic audit do not warrant rejection where no actual prejudice is demonstrated
The New Delhi Special Bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) in the case of India Bulls vs Dr. Subhash Chandra [Company Petition No. (IB) – 97(ND)/2022] dated August 25, 2026, has held that where a Repayment Plan under Part III of the IBC has been approved by the requisite majority of creditors and the statutory procedure under Sections 105, 106, 112 and 114 of the IBC has been substantially complied with, the Adjudicating Authority must accord due deference to the commercial wisdom of the creditors while exercising supervisory judicial scrutiny.
The NCLT clarified that the definition of “associate” under Section 79(2)(g) cannot be expanded beyond its statutory text, and procedural irregularities such as shorter notice periods or absence of forensic audit do not warrant rejection where no actual prejudice is demonstrated. The approved Plan binds all creditors under Section 115, subject to the Tribunal’s inherent power to recall its order upon subsequent discovery of fraudulent concealment of material assets.
The Tribunal observed that the Adjudicating Authority under Section 114 of the IBC is not a mere rubber stamp to the creditors’ decision but must independently examine whether the statutory framework has been complied with, while respecting the commercial wisdom of the creditors. On the interpretation of Section 79(2)(g), the Tribunal held that the statutory test for determining an “associate” is based on ownership exceeding 50% of share capital or legal control over the Board of Directors, and not on commercial influence, business proximity, or family relationships.
The Tribunal observed that the Legislature deliberately used narrower language in Part III compared to the broader “related party” concept in Part II, and purposive interpretation cannot be used to rewrite clear statutory language. The Tribunal further observed that the Code does not make a forensic audit or asset-tracing exercise a mandatory precondition for approval of a repayment plan under Chapter III of Part III, as such investigative powers are specifically conferred only on the Bankruptcy Trustee under Section 149.
Selling duplicate hardware accessories does not constitute copyright infringement under Section 63, and that converting a trademark dispute into a copyright FIR to evade the mandatory Registrar’s opinion and DSP-rank investigation under Section 115(4) of the Trade Marks Act amounts to an abuse of process
The Gujarat High Court in the case of Jitendrabhai Mohanbhai Kriplani vs State of Gujarat [R/CR.MA/21846/2022] dated September 07, 2026, has ruled that selling duplicate hardware accessories does not constitute copyright infringement under Section 63, and that converting a trademark dispute into a copyright FIR to evade the mandatory Registrar’s opinion and DSP-rank investigation under Section 115(4) of the Trade Marks Act amounts to an abuse of process. The Court clarified that AirPods, USB cables, power adapters, smartwatches and similar electronic accessories are commercial industrial products and do not fall within the scope of ‘literary, dramatic, musical or artistic work’ under Sections 2(c) and 13 of the Copyright Act, 1957, and hence, selling duplicate versions of such items cannot attract Section 63 of the Copyright Act.
The Court held that an FIR invoking Section 63 of the Copyright Act must explicitly set out how the seized material satisfies the definition of a protected ‘work’ under Section 2 read with Section 13. A generic allegation that goods ‘infringe copyright’ without identifying any specific literary work (such as instruction manuals) or artistic work (such as original packaging artwork) is insufficient to sustain a copyright offence. The High Court also clarified that standard MRP price tags, barcodes, technical model stickers and seal stickers contain purely functional and factual data which cannot originate as an ‘original literary work’ of authorship. Photographs produced by the complainant through an affidavit in reply cannot substitute the recovery memo, and no new factual foundation can be invented during oral arguments.
Moving ahead, the Court emphasised that the mandatory prior opinion of the Registrar of Trade Marks and the requirement that search and seizure be conducted only by an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police are statutory conditions precedent, not technical formalities. The Court also said that where a complainant deliberately dresses up a trademark dispute as a copyright infringement to bypass statutory safeguards under the Trade Marks Act, the Court will not permit a subsequent ‘conversion’ or fallback to trademark charges. Allowing such indirect achievement of what is directly prohibited would amount to sanctioning a deliberate evasion of statutory mandate.
The Court observed that under Section 13 read with Section 2(c) of the Copyright Act, 1957, copyright protection is strictly confined to original literary, dramatic, musical or artistic works, sound recordings and cinematograph films, and that hardware components, cables, power adapters and electronic devices are commercial industrial products. The Court noted that misusing a brand name or producing duplicate hardware bearing a trademark constitutes falsification of trademarks punishable under Sections 103 and 104 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, rather than an offence under the Copyright Act, and that selling duplicate commercial items bearing a registered trademark cannot attract Section 63 of the Copyright Act unless the FIR explicitly establishes the existence of a copyrightable artistic work.
The Court found that the FIR merely describes the seized items as ‘goods’ infringing upon the copyright of Apple Inc. Corporation and bearing the Apple trademark but does not state that Apple holds copyright in any specific literary work or artistic work.
An agent cannot claim a cross-contractual lien over the principal’s property for dues arising under separate agreements in the absence of an express contractual provision permitting such retention, since Section 221 of the Indian Contract Act limits the agent’s lien to amounts due ‘in respect of the same’ property
The Bombay High Court in the case of Limited Liability Company “LTB” vs Vaibhavi Logistics [Commercial Arbitration Petition (L) No.24421 of 2026] dated August 27, 2026, has held that an agent cannot retain the principal’s property to secure dues arising under separate agreements. The Court held that an agent cannot claim a cross-contractual lien over the principal’s property for dues arising under separate agreements in the absence of an express contractual provision permitting such retention, since Section 221 of the Indian Contract Act limits the agent’s lien to amounts due “in respect of the same” property.
The Court observed that Section 221 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 entitles an agent to retain the principal’s property only for commission, disbursements or services “in respect of the same” property, and not for dues arising under separate contracts. Also, the Court clarified that Section 9 relief can be granted against non-signatories who are in physical possession of the subject matter of the arbitration, as the focus of Section 9(ii)(c) is on protection of the subject matter and not on contractual liability of the non-signatory.
The Court further held that a composite Section 9 Petition based on multiple agreements with separate arbitration clauses is not maintainable as a single reference, but the Petitioner may restrict its Petition to one agreement and seek liberty to pursue the remaining claims separately, in line with the principle underlying Order XXIII Rule 1(3) CPC.
Identification and arraignment of individuals are not prerequisites for prosecution of a company. The chargesheet must disclose that the corporation itself committed the offence, not that it has identified the particular individual through whom it did so, and that the corporation’s role can be disclosed through averments concerning its own conduct
The Supreme Court in the case of Sanofi India vs Central Bureau of Investigation [Criminal Appeal No. 4250 of 2026] dated September 07, 2026, has clarified that identification and arraignment of individuals are not prerequisites for prosecution of a company. The Court reasoned that the chargesheet must disclose that the corporation itself committed the offence, not that it has identified the particular individual through whom it did so, and that the corporation’s role can be disclosed through averments concerning its own conduct, decisions, and dealings without naming the individual who carried them out.
The Court held that mens rea can be averred through surrounding facts and conduct without being tied to a specifically named individual, and that the question of attribution is intricate and ultimately a matter for trial. The Court clarified that the rulings in Aneeta Hada v. Godfather Travels [(2012) 5 SCC 661] and Hindustan Unilever v. State of M.P. [(2020) 10 SCC 751], which required arraignment of the company for prosecution of natural persons under Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act and similar vicarious liability provisions, cannot be read as establishing a general rule that arraignment of a natural person is a prerequisite for a corporation’s prosecution. The Court held that such principle applies only where the statute creates vicarious liability.
The Court observed that the question of whether a corporation can possess mens rea was no longer res integra in India, having been settled in favour of corporate criminal liability through decisions such as Iridium India Telecom Ltd. v. Motorola Inc. [(2011) 1 SCC 74] and Standard Chartered Bank v. Directorate of Enforcement [(2005) 4 SCC 530]. The Court noted that the real gap in Indian jurisprudence lay in the second question, namely, the basis on which mens rea could be attributed to a corporation, which had remained largely unaddressed.
Where an instrument, in substance, grants development rights to a promoter or developer against a percentage of gross sale proceeds as consideration, Article 5(g-a) of Schedule I of the Maharashtra Stamp Act applies, regardless of whether the document is described as a ‘Development Agreement’ or a ‘Joint Venture Agreement’
The Bombay High Court in the case of Star Developers vs State of Maharashtra [Writ Petition No. 11127 of 2018] dated August 28, 2026, has held that the substance of an agreement, not its label, determines whether Article 5(g-a) of Schedule I of the Maharashtra Stamp Act applies, and that an owner’s agreed percentage of gross sale proceeds constitutes consideration for development rights even where the exact future amount is uncertain. The Court clarified that where an instrument, in substance, grants development rights to a promoter or developer against a percentage of gross sale proceeds as consideration, Article 5(g-a) of Schedule I of the Maharashtra Stamp Act applies, regardless of whether the document is described as a “Development Agreement” or a “Joint Venture Agreement.”
The Court reaffirmed that revenue sharing of gross sale proceeds, though payable later, constitutes consideration for the transfer of development rights under Section 2(na) of the Maharashtra Stamp Act, and that the consideration has to be calculated as on the date of execution of the instrument by considering the development potential and the applicable ASR rates. The Court held that the 2015 ASR Guidelines cannot retrospectively create a fresh stamp duty liability for documents executed prior to their issuance, but the statutory basis for such demand exists in Article 5(g-a) and Section 2(na) read with Section 32A of the Act.
The Court further held that Section 32A(5) can be validly invoked on receipt of information from any source, including audit objections raised by the CAG, provided the Collector independently examines the correctness of the market value and the stamp duty payable. The Court also held that the residuary provision under Article 5(h)(b) cannot be invoked to avoid a specific entry merely because the document has been given a different name, and that the subsequent sale of constructed units is a separate taxable instrument and does not amount to double stamp duty on the same transaction.
On the CAG issue, the Court held that while an audit objection is not an order determining stamp duty, it can bring possible undervaluation to the notice of the competent authority, and Section 32A(5) permits the Collector to act “on receipt of information from any source.” The Court rejected the argument regarding double stamp duty, holding that the subsequent sale of constructed units is a separate transfer and is separately chargeable to stamp duty. The Court also rejected the contention that the Respondents had taxed future profits, observing that the amount was being considered as consideration for determining market value and stamp duty, and not as an assessment of income-tax.
A practising Chartered Accountant is not disqualified under Section 29A from submitting a resolution plan, and the ICAI has confirmed such eligibility subject to the restriction on acting as a whole-time director
The New Delhi Principal Bench of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) in the case of Vinay Gupta vs Oswal Minerals Limited & Satellite Cables [Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 1038 of 2024] dated August 21, 2026, has held that practising Chartered Accountants are not barred from submitting resolution plans under Section 29A, and that government dues, not provided for in an approved plan stand extinguished under the ‘clean slate’ doctrine. The NCLAT explained that the commercial wisdom of the CoC in approving a resolution plan with 100% voting share is non-justiciable and cannot be substituted by the Adjudicating Authority or the Appellate Tribunal. A suspended director’s challenge under Section 61 must demonstrate material prejudice, not merely procedural irregularity.
Further, the NCLAT asserted that a practising Chartered Accountant is not disqualified under Section 29A from submitting a resolution plan, and the ICAI has confirmed such eligibility subject to the restriction on acting as a whole-time director. At the same time, an OTS proposal does not terminate CIRP absent a Section 12A withdrawal, and the CoC is entitled to consider factors beyond the highest monetary bid. While interference with an implemented resolution plan is deprecated, the Tribunal imposed costs on both appellants for abusing the process of law.
The Tribunal observed that a suspended director is not completely excluded from the CIRP and is entitled to meaningful participation under Section 24(3)(b) of the IBC, as recognised by the Supreme Court in Vijay Kumar Jain v. Standard Chartered Bank [(2019) 20 SCC 455]. On the OTS issue, the NCLAT observed that once CIRP commences, withdrawal can only occur under Section 12A with 90% CoC approval, and a mere settlement proposal does not nullify the CIRP. On the alleged higher bid, the Tribunal observed that entertaining post-closure revisions would destabilise the insolvency resolution process and could lead to manipulation, and that Mr. Anuj Goyal himself had not challenged the plan approval.
On government dues, the NCLAT observed that the CGST order-in-original was passed on 20 December 2023, two days before voting concluded, and the RP’s obligation under Section 30(2)(b)(ii) was only to examine plans against admitted or known dues. The Tribunal further noted that the Supreme Court in Ghanashyam Mishra and Sons Pvt. Ltd. v. Edelweiss Asset Reconstruction Co. Ltd. [(2021) 9 SCC 657], held that once a resolution plan is approved under Section 31, all claims not included in the plan stand extinguished under the ‘clean slate’ doctrine, and the approved plan becomes binding on government authorities and statutory creditors.
Legal Updates (Aug 24 – Aug 29, 2026)
Legal Updates (Aug 24 – Aug 29, 2026)
CASE UPDATES
Suit for disparagement simpliciter does not constitute a “commercial dispute” within the meaning of Section 2(1)(c)(xvii) of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, even if stray references are made in the plaint to trademarks, copyrights, or design registrations
The Calcutta High Court in the case of Sun Pharmaceutical Industries vs Emami [F.M.A.T. No. 56 of 2026] dated August 17, 2026, has held that a suit for disparagement simpliciter does not constitute a “commercial dispute” within the meaning of Section 2(1)(c)(xvii) of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, even if stray references are made in the plaint to trademarks, copyrights, or design registrations. The items enumerated under Section 2(1)(c) of the CC Act are exhaustive, and a narrow interpretation is to be lent to the provisions of the Act in light of its object of providing speedy remedy. Disparagement and infringement or passing off stand on diametrically opposite poles, since the former denigrates a product while the latter acknowledges its worth through emulation.
For Section 29(8) of the Trade Marks Act to apply, the registered trademark itself must feature in the offending advertisement, which was absent in the present case. A generic term like “Balm” cannot be presumed to be exclusively linked to a particular manufacturer merely on the basis of market leadership, and in the absence of any direct correlation between the container depicted in the advertisement and the plaintiff’s product, no recall value can be deduced. The plaintiff must plead and prove generic disparagement as a distinct cause of action to succeed on that ground, and mere market share does not substitute for such pleading.
The Court observed that the items enumerated under Section 2(1)(c) of the CC Act are exhaustive in defining a commercial dispute, drawing support from Bharat Coop. Bank, Everstrong Sales, and Ambalal Sarabhai Enterprises. The Court noted that while the phrases “arising out of” and “relating to” in Clause (xvii) lend a wider perspective, the cause of action and reliefs in the plaint must still be relatable to intellectual property rights.
The Court drew a fundamental distinction between disparagement, which is the denigration of a product or brand, and infringement or passing off, which acknowledges the worth of the trademark by seeking to emulate it, holding that the two stand on diametrically opposite poles. The Court observed that the plaint did not allege infringement of trademark or copyright as the immediate trigger of the suit, and that Paragraph 56 of the plaint itself sought leave under Order II Rule 2 of the CPC to sue separately for infringement, passing off, and design violations, drawing a clear line of distinction.
The Court further observed that Section 29(8) of the Trade Marks Act was not attracted because the offending commercial did not refer to, show, or allude to any trademark or copyright of Emami, but merely referred to balms in general. On the second issue, the Court observed that the plaint did not plead generic disparagement but only direct disparagement of Emami’s products, and that the offending advertisement did not carry Emami’s brand name or any unique shape, design, or colour relatable to Emami’s design registrations.
The Court held that the expression “Balm” is a generic term referring to the consistency and texture of a product rather than a particular species of products, and that mere market share of 57% did not make the term “Balm” inextricably and exclusively linked with Emami’s products. Accordingly, the Court allowed Sun Pharma’s appeal and set aside the ad interim injunction that had restrained it from airing the impugned video and making any statements regarding Emami’s “Zandu Balm”, “Mentho Plus Balm” and “Zandu Ultra Power Balm” products. The Court held that a suit for disparagement simpliciter is not a “commercial dispute” under the Commercial Courts Act and that mere market leadership cannot convert a generic term like “Balm” into a brand-specific reference.
A demand notice issued in Form B under Rule 7(1) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy (Application to Adjudicating Authority for Bankruptcy Process for Personal Guarantors to Corporate Debtors) Rules, 2019 is a statutory requirement and cannot be treated as an invocation of the personal guarantee
The New Delhi Bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) in the case of Canara Bank vs Karan A Chanana [I.A No. 4796 of 2022] dated August 12, 2026, has held that a Form B notice under Rule 7(1) of the PG Rules is a statutory prerequisite and not an invocation of the guarantee itself. The NCLT held that the invocation of a guarantee is governed by the terms of the Deed of Guarantee, and in the present case, the Guarantee Deed dated Aug 28, 2015 expressly provided that the guarantee shall be invoked upon a demand being made by the Applicant Bank.
The NCLT also reiterated the settled legal position that a demand notice issued in Form B under Rule 7(1) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy (Application to Adjudicating Authority for Bankruptcy Process for Personal Guarantors to Corporate Debtors) Rules, 2019 is a statutory requirement and cannot be treated as an invocation of the personal guarantee.
The Bench noted that it is settled law that the cause of action under a Section 95 petition arises on invocation of the guarantee, pursuant to which the Personal Guarantor becomes a debtor, and the invocation of a guarantee is governed by the terms of the Deed of Guarantee itself. In the present case, the Guarantee Deed dated Aug 28, 2015 expressly provides that the guarantee shall be invoked upon a demand being made by the Applicant Bank.
The Tribunal further noted that the first communication for recalling the amount of debt from the Personal Guarantor was by way of a statutory demand notice in Form B, and nothing was placed on record to show that there was any invocation of the guarantee or recall of the amount prior to Feb 19, 2022. The Tribunal also noted that the core question that arose for determination was whether the demand notice issued under Rule 7(1) of the PG Rules, 2019 constitutes a valid invocation of the Guarantee, and whether default on the part of the Personal Guarantor should exist prior to the issuance of the demand notice under Rule 7(1).
Applying this settled position of law, the NCLT observed that the demand notice issued under Rule 7(1) in Form B is a statutory requirement and cannot be construed as an invocation of the guarantee.
Provisional attachment by the Enforcement Directorate under the PMLA did not extinguish the Financial Debt or the occurrence of default, although it might have implications during the CIRP
The Ahmedabad Bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) in the case of CFM Asset Reconstruction Private Limited vs Capbridge Venture LLP [C.P.(IB)/225(AHM)2026] dated July 30, 2026, has held that the remedies under the SARFAESI Act and the IBC operate in different fields, and that the provisional attachment of the secured asset by the Directorate of Enforcement under the PMLA does not extinguish the Financial Debt or the occurrence of default, although it may have implications during the CIRP.
The Tribunal applied the well-settled principle that once the Adjudicating Authority is satisfied regarding the existence of a Financial Debt and the occurrence of default, the petition under Section 7 deserves admission. The Bench referred to judgments of Supreme Court in Innoventive Industries Ltd. v. ICICI Bank [(2018) 1 SCC 407], to hold that the statutory requirements of Section 7 stood fully established in the present case. The decision in Vidarbha Industries Power Ltd. v. Axis Bank [(2022) 8 SCC 352], which was relied upon by the Respondent, was distinguished on facts, with the Bench holding that it did not assist the Respondent because the Financial Debt and the default stood duly established by the loan documents, Statements of Account, and the Information Utility record.
The Tribunal reaffirmed that a corporate person who owes a debt falls within the definition of a Corporate Debtor under Section 3(8) of the Code, and that the liability of a co-borrower is sufficient to invoke Section 7. The Bench also reiterated that the IBC is not a recovery mechanism, and the existence of alternative remedies does not bar the maintainability of a Section 7 petition once the statutory ingredients are satisfied. The Tribunal observed that the loan documents clearly disclosed the Respondent as a borrower owing liability under the loan transactions.
The Tribunal further observed that the Applicant derived its rights under the Deed of Assignment dated 31 March 2026, which had been duly communicated to the Respondent, and that the remedies under the SARFAESI Act and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code operate in different fields, with the initiation of statutory recovery measures not precluding proceedings under Section 7. The Bench also held that the provisional attachment by the Enforcement Directorate under the PMLA did not extinguish the Financial Debt or the occurrence of default, although it might have implications during the CIRP.
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Act, 2026, which inserted sub-section (4) to Section 96 with effect from May 26, 2026, is “retroactive” in nature and not merely prospective, and therefore applies to applications that were filed prior to the cut-off date but remain pending adjudication
The Delhi High Court in the case of IDBI Trusteeship Services vs Manish Jain [CS(COMM) 800/2025] dated August 19, 2026, has held that the newly inserted sub-section (4) to Section 96 of the IBC is “retroactive” in nature and applies to applications filed prior to May 26, 2026 which remain pending adjudication, thereby vacating the interim moratorium that had accrued in favour of personal guarantors to corporate debtors. The High Court clarified that where an amendment to a statute is intended to rectify a mischief or curb abuse that has crept into the working of the enactment, and the amendment does not expressly state its temporal operation, the doctrine of quasi-retroactivity applies. Such an amendment operates in futuro but is anchored to a character, status, or event that arose earlier, and consequently applies to all pending proceedings where the relevant facts continue to subsist.
The Court applied the doctrine of “quasi-retroactivity” as expounded by the Supreme Court in Vineeta Sharma [(2020) 9 SCC 1], State Bank’s Staff Union vs. Union of India [(2005) 7 SCC 584], and SEBI vs. Rajkumar Nagpal [(2023) 8 SCC 274], holding that the expression “an application is filed” in sub-section (4) of Section 96 must be read to include applications filed and pending as on May 26, 2026.
The Court placed heavy reliance on the Report of the Select Committee on the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2025, which expressly recorded that the amendment was aimed at curbing the rampant misuse of the interim moratorium by personal guarantors to obstruct legitimate recovery proceedings, a loophole flagged by NCLT members as being responsible for significant value erosion.
Applying this principle, the Court held that the interim moratorium under Section 96 of the IBC, which had accrued in favour of a personal guarantor to a corporate debtor upon filing of a Section 95 application prior to May 26, 2026, stood vacated by the retroactive operation of sub-section (4) inserted by the Amending Act, 2026, and the suit against such personal guarantor was therefore maintainable. The Court thus rejected the application under Order VII Rule 11 of the CPC filed by the Personal Guarantor seeking rejection of the plaint on the ground of interim moratorium under Section 96 of the IBC.
Arbitrator has wide discretion under Section 31(7) of the Arbitration Act to award pre-reference, pendente lite, and post-award interest at such rate as it deems reasonable, and the rate of interest can be interfered with only if it is so perverse or unreasonable as to shock the conscience of the Court
The Delhi High Court in the case of India Tourism Development Corporation vs Bajaj Electricals [O.M.P. (COMM) 404/2019] dated August 17, 2026, has reaffirmed the well-settled legal position that under Section 34 of the Arbitration Act, the Court does not sit in appeal over an arbitral award and interference is permissible only on the limited grounds specified therein. A possible view taken by the Arbitrator on facts must be respected, and mere erroneous application of law or reappreciation of evidence is not a ground to set aside an award. Patent illegality must go to the root of the matter and shock the judicial conscience, and cannot be of a trivial nature.
The Court also held that the Arbitrator is the ultimate master of the quantity and quality of evidence to be relied upon, and where the findings of the Arbitrator are based on some evidence, even if it is a single witness’s testimony, the Court cannot regard the conclusion as patently illegal. The Court further held that the Arbitrator has wide discretion under Section 31(7) of the Arbitration Act to award pre-reference, pendente lite, and post-award interest at such rate as it deems reasonable, and the rate of interest can be interfered with only if it is so perverse or unreasonable as to shock the conscience of the Court.
Interim moratorium under Section 96 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 operates only qua the corporate debtor and cannot be invoked by directors or persons in-charge to stay criminal prosecutions launched against them under Section 138 read with Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
The Bombay High Court in the case of Jagmohan Garg vs National Spot Exchange [Application No. 1749 of 2024] dated August 18, 2026, has categorically held that the interim moratorium under Section 96 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 operates only qua the corporate debtor and cannot be invoked by directors or persons in-charge to stay criminal prosecutions launched against them under Section 138 read with Section 141 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.
The Court also clarified that where a cheque is drawn by a company on its own account towards discharge of a corporate liability, the underlying debt is that of the company. The vicarious liability fastened on directors under Section 141 of the NI Act does not transform the corporate debt into the personal debt of the director, and therefore the expression “in respect of any debt” in Section 96 of the IBC does not get attracted.
The Court reiterated that shareholders or directors of a company are not the owners of its property; the company has an independent juristic existence. When a corporate entity incurs a debt, the debt remains that of the corporate entity, and does not become the personal debt of its directors. Where a cheque is drawn by a company on its own account towards discharge of such debt, the debt or liability is primarily that of the company. Directors are prosecuted by invoking the deeming provisions of Section 141 of the NI Act, but this does not alter the character of the underlying debt.
The Court applied the binding precedent in P. Mohanraj vs M/s Shah Brothers Ispat Pvt Ltd [(2021) 6 SCC 258], where the three-Judge Bench had held that the moratorium provision contained in Section 14 of the IBC applies only to the corporate debtor, and that natural persons mentioned in Section 141 of the NI Act continue to be statutorily liable. The Court noted that Section 141 enables prosecution of persons in charge of the affairs of the company along with the company, and that the statutory liability against directors under Section 138 is personal and continues to bind natural persons, irrespective of any moratorium applicable to the corporate debtor.
Referring to a two-Judge Bench decision in Ajay Kumar Radheyshyam Goenka vs Tourism Finance Corporation of India Ltd. [(2023) 10 SCC 545], the Court observed that the scope and nature of proceedings under the IBC and the NI Act are quite different and do not intercede each other. The criminal liability and fines under Section 138 of the NI Act are built on the principle of not honouring a negotiable instrument, which affects trade. The extinguishment of debt consequent to the insolvency resolution process does not ipso facto result in extinguishment of criminal proceedings, and the termination of proceedings against the corporate entity does not result in automatic exoneration of the directors or responsible persons.
In essence, the Court held that the debt in question is that of the corporate entity, and the factors constituting an offence under Section 138 relate to the failure of the corporate entity to pay the amount covered by the cheque drawn by it. The applicants were arraigned by invoking Section 141 of the NI Act. In such circumstances, the initiation of the insolvency resolution process, either under Part II or Part III of the IBC, does not preclude the continuation of the prosecution for an offence under Section 138 of the NI Act.
The bar under the proviso to Section 43(5) of RERA 2016, mandating pre-deposit by the promoter, applies even at the stage of hearing the application for condonation of delay
The Bombay High Court in the case of Neumec Developers and Builders vs Chirag Jain [Second Appeal No. 315 of 2026] dated August 05, 2026, has held that an application for condonation of delay in filing an appeal does not have a distinct and separate existence apart from the appeal itself; rather, it constitutes a composite proceeding of appeal. Consequently, the bar under the proviso to Section 43(5) of RERA 2016, mandating pre-deposit by the promoter, applies even at the stage of hearing the application for condonation of delay.
The expression “before the said appeal is heard” in Section 43(5) encompasses the hearing of the condonation application, as the term “appeal” subsumes the condonation application within its fold. A promoter who belatedly invokes the jurisdiction of the Appellate Tribunal is bound by the same pre-deposit requirement as a promoter who files within the limitation period, applying the principle of a fortiori.
The Court examined the proviso to Section 43(5) of RERA 2016, which mandates that an appeal by a promoter shall not be entertained without the promoter first depositing at least thirty per cent of the penalty, or the total amount to be paid to the allottee including interest and compensation, before the appeal is heard.
The Court observed that the expression “before the said appeal is heard” appearing in Section 43(5) is significant and distinguishes it from Section 21 of the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993 (“RDB Act”) as the expression “before the said appeal is heard” is absent in Section 21. The Court placed heavy reliance on the Division Bench judgment in Deluxe Cotton Corporation vs. Bank of Baroda [2016 SCC OnLine Bom 2629], which held that an appeal accompanied by an application for condonation of delay is nevertheless an appeal in the eyes of law, and the bar under Section 21 applies even at the stage of considering the condonation application.
The Court further observed that the object of the pre-deposit requirement, as explained by the Supreme Court in M/s. Newtech Promoters and Developers Private Limited vs. State of Uttar Pradesh [(2021) 18 SCC 1], is to safeguard the allottee’s money and prevent unscrupulous litigation by promoters. The Court noted that allowing a promoter to delay the appeal and have the condonation application heard without pre-deposit would defeat the object of RERA 2016 and lead to absurd consequences, as it would enable promoters to keep matters sub judice to the grave prejudice of successful allottees.
Where a well-known pharmaceutical mark with established goodwill and continuous use since 1996 is sought to be diluted by a subsequent user adopting a coined expression sharing the dominant prefix and overall visual and phonetic similarity, and where both parties operate in the pharmaceutical sector with overlapping trade channels, the case satisfies the ‘triple identity’ test warranting grant of interim injunction
The Delhi High Court in the case of Noviets Pharma vs Novartis AG [FAO(OS) (COMM) 143/2026] dated August 18, 2026, has held that where a well-known pharmaceutical mark with established goodwill and continuous use since 1996 is sought to be diluted by a subsequent user adopting a coined expression sharing the dominant prefix and overall visual and phonetic similarity, and where both parties operate in the pharmaceutical sector with overlapping trade channels, the case satisfies the ‘triple identity’ test warranting grant of interim injunction.
The Court noted that the impugned marks were deceptively similar to the extent that they were visually and phonetically similar, targeted the same consumer base, and the class of consumers was also similar. The Single Judge noted that a mere replacement of the letters ‘AR’ with ‘IE’ and removal of the letter ‘I’ from the respondents’ mark would not amount to a distinguishing feature sufficient to differentiate the goods of the parties. However, the Division Bench emphasised that in cases involving pharmaceutical products, a stricter approach ought to be adopted by Courts due to public interest considerations, and even an initial interest confusion at a preliminary stage would be sufficient to meet the requirement of deceptive similarity under Section 29 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999.
The Single Judge further noted that the prefix ‘NOV’ formed the dominant feature of the impugned marks and that the mark ‘Novartis’, being in use since 1996, could not be allowed to be diluted by a similar mark using the prefix ‘NOV’. The Division Bench, while dealing with the appeal, observed that the Single Judge had applied the demurrer principle for territorial jurisdiction and that the issue would be decided after framing of issues at trial.
The Court noted that both parties were involved in pharmaceutical products, with the appellants dealing in veterinary products, making the competing goods and consumer base sufficiently similar to create a substantial risk of confusion. The Court found that the appellants had failed to provide a plausible explanation for how they arrived at the mark ‘Noviets’, and that the mark appeared to have been coined to benefit from the goodwill of the respondents.
Accordingly, the Court reaffirmed that ‘NOVARTIS’, being a well-known mark registered and used in India since 1996 with substantial sales figures, is entitled to strong protection against any deceptively similar adoption, even where the competing mark differs in suffix or device elements. The Court rejected the appellants’ argument that the prefix ‘NOV’ was generic or common to the trade, holding that it constituted the dominant and essential feature of the respondents’ mark and could not be allowed to be diluted by a subsequent user without adequate explanation for adoption.
REGULATORY UPDATES
RBI (Priority Sector Lending – Targets and Classification) Second Amendment Directions, 2026, carve out incremental advances linked to the US Dollar-Rupee swap window from Adjusted Net Bank Credit, with immediate effect
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), vide Circular RBI/2026-27/232 dated August 07, 2026, issued the Second Amendment Directions to the Priority Sector Lending – Targets and Classification Directions, 2025, with immediate effect. The amendment is anchored in the Governor’s Statement dated June 5, 2026, and the RBI circular dated June 08, 2026 on the ‘Swap Facility for FCNR (B) Deposits’, under which a US Dollar-Rupee swap facility has been introduced for fresh Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Bank) [FCNR (B)] dollar funds mobilised for a minimum tenor of three years and a maximum tenor of five years.
The Directions draw further context from the RBI (Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio) Second and Third Amendment Directions dated June 08, 2026 and June 19, 2026, which granted exemption from maintenance of CRR and SLR on fresh FCNR (B) deposits of three to five year tenor mobilised (including renewals upon maturity) between June 08, 2026 and September 30, 2026, and on fresh Non-Resident (External) Rupee (NRE) term deposits of three years or more tenor mobilised (including renewals upon maturity) between June 19, 2026 and September 30, 2026.
The core amendment provides that the following advances extended in India shall be excluded from the calculation of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC): (a) advances against fresh FCNR (B) deposits of three to five year tenor mobilised (including renewals upon maturity) by banks between June 08, 2026 and September 30, 2026; and (b) advances against NRE term deposits of three years or more mobilised (including renewals upon maturity) by banks between June 19, 2026 and September 30, 2026.
The amendment partially modifies Item VI in the table at paragraph 6.1 of the PSL Directions, 2025, to capture advances extended in India against the incremental fresh FCNR (B) / NRE deposits (including renewals upon maturity) qualifying for CRR and SLR exemption under the earlier RBI circulars dated August 14, 2013 and January 31, 2014 (read with the February 6, 2014 clarification and the UCB circulars dated August 27, 2013 and June 11, 2014), as well as the CRR and SLR Second and Third Amendment Directions dated June 08, 2026 and June 19, 2026.
A capping mechanism has been prescribed through a Note, which clarifies that the amount to be excluded from ANBC for computation of priority sector targets shall not exceed the fresh FCNR (B) / NRE deposits eligible for exemption from maintenance of CRR / SLR under the above Amendment Directions. Additionally, Footnote 3 of the PSL Directions, 2025, which prescribed the methodology for calculating incremental advances as the difference between outstanding advances in India as on March 7, 2014 (or June 13, 2014 for UCBs) and the Base Date of July 26, 2013, has been deleted in its entirety.
Click here to read/ download the original amendment direction
Legal Updates (Aug 17 – Aug 22, 2026)
Legal Updates (Aug 17 – Aug 22, 2026)
CASE UPDATES
If an ordinary citizen approaches the police alleging financial loss arising from front running, it is incumbent upon the police to forward the complaint to SEBI, which alone can decide whether to initiate criminal proceedings under Sections 24 and 26 of the SEBI Act
The Bombay High Court in the case of Viresh Gangaram Joshi vs State of Maharashtra [Criminal Application No. 1036 of 2025] dated August 13, 2026, held that Section 26 of the SEBI Act creates an express statutory bar against any court taking cognizance of offences punishable under the SEBI Act or the rules and regulations made thereunder, save on a complaint made by the Board. Since the SEBI Act is a Special Act, its provisions prevail over the general law contained in the IPC and the BNSS, and once a Special Act holds the field, the provisions of the general law cannot be invoked to prosecute the same conduct.
The Court reiterated that where the substantive offence alleged is one under a Special Act requiring a complaint by the specified statutory authority, registration of an FIR by the police for the same conduct under the general criminal law amounts to a circumvention of the Special Act and is therefore not maintainable. The Court further held that even if an ordinary citizen approaches the police alleging financial loss arising from front running, it is incumbent upon the police to forward the complaint to SEBI, which alone can decide whether to initiate criminal proceedings under Sections 24 and 26 of the SEBI Act.
The Court observed that the allegations, on a bare perusal, prima facie disclosed an offence of front running, which is statutorily recognised as an offence under the SEBI Act and the SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Relating to Securities Market) Regulations, 2003. The Court took note of the Affidavit dated 8th December 2025 filed by the Assistant Police Inspector of the Economic Offences Wing, which expressly stated that the case pertained to front-running trades executed based on unauthorisedly provided Unpublished Price Sensitive Information, and that the core issue revolved around front running as defined in SEBI’s Circular dated 25th May 2012.
The Court further observed that the SEBI Act is a Special Act enacted to protect investor interests and regulate the securities market, and that SEBI is the expert body entrusted with the responsibility of investigating and prosecuting violations of securities laws. The Court noted that the doctrine of circumvention would apply squarely, as the same conduct could not be reframed under the IPC to bypass the statutory bar contained in Section 26 of the SEBI Act. Accordingly, the Court quashed the FIR against former Axis AMC Chief Dealer Viresh Joshi, holding that front running is exclusively prosecutable by SEBI under Section 26 of the SEBI Act, and that registration of an FIR by police for the same conduct amounts to circumvention of the Special Act.
Where possession of a secured asset has been lawfully taken by a secured creditor under Section 14 of the SARFAESI Act, and the borrower subsequently re-enters the property through illegal means, the District Magistrate is not rendered functus officio and possesses the authority to re-execute the possession order
The Madhya Pradesh High Court in the case of Union Bank of India Branch Shabd Pratap Ashram Gwalior vs State of Madhya Pradesh [Writ Petition No. 29046 of 2026] dated August 05, 2026, has upheld the rights of banks and financial institutions by directing state authorities to re-execute a possession order and dispossess defaulting borrowers who had unlawfully re-entered the secured asset. The Court held that where possession of a secured asset has been lawfully taken by a secured creditor under Section 14 of the SARFAESI Act, and the borrower subsequently re-enters the property through illegal means, the District Magistrate is not rendered functus officio and possesses the authority to re-execute the possession order.
The Court clarified that the state authorities are legally bound to assist the secured creditor in restoring possession, as such illegal re-entry cannot be permitted to defeat the statutory remedies provided to financial institutions for the recovery of defaulted loans. Accordingly, the Court directed the respondent authorities to immediately provide necessary aid and assistance to the bank for dispossessing the borrower from the mortgaged property and restoring physical possession to the secured creditor.
The Court observed that the statutory authorities are under a bounden duty to provide continuous assistance to secured creditors for recovering defaulted loans. Referring to the established legal precedents, the Court noted that there is absolutely no legal impediment or bar that prevents the re-execution of an order of possession or providing re-assistance to a secured creditor under the SARFAESI Act.
The Court strongly emphasized that allowing borrowers to retain possession after employing illegal tricks to re-enter a secured asset would amount to perpetuating an illegality and making a mockery of the rule of law. Furthermore, the Court highlighted that the powers exercised by the District Magistrate under Section 14 are merely ministerial and not adjudicatory, meaning the authorities must act on behalf of the secured creditor to ensure the asset remains secured.
After resorting to all remedies available in law, including proceedings under the RDDB Act, SARFAESI Act, and the IBC, a bank cannot open a Look Out Circular as an arm-twisting tactic to recover debt from a person who is otherwise unable to pay, particularly when there are no allegations that such person was engaged in any fraud, siphoning off, or defalcation of the loan amounts
The Delhi High Court in the case of Tushar Dey vs Union of India [W.P.(C) 8120/2026] dated August 10, 2026, has that the right to travel abroad is a fundamental right guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution of India and cannot be taken away in an arbitrary or illegal manner. The Court noted with concern that banks are increasingly insisting on opening of Look Out Circulars merely as a measure to recover money without initiating any criminal proceedings, which the Court found impermissible.
The Court emphasised that an LOC is a major impediment for a person who wishes to travel abroad, and no person can be deprived of his right to go abroad except for very compelling reasons. The procedure for such deprivation cannot be arbitrary, unfair, or unreasonable, as recognised by the Supreme Court in Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India [(1978) 1 SCC 248]. The Court further observed that there were no allegations in the counter affidavit that the petitioner was engaged in any fraud, siphoning, or defalcation of the funds given as loan.
The Court cancelled the Look Out Circular (LOC) issued against the petitioner, a former Independent and Non-Executive Director of Birla Aircon Infrastructure Private Limited (BAIPL), who had resigned from the Board in 2013. The Court laid down that after resorting to all remedies available in law, including proceedings under the RDDB Act, SARFAESI Act, and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, a bank cannot open a Look Out Circular as an arm-twisting tactic to recover debt from a person who is otherwise unable to pay, particularly when there are no allegations that such person was engaged in any fraud, siphoning off, or defalcation of the loan amounts.
The mere fact that a person was associated with a defaulting company, even as a director, does not justify the issuance of an LOC to curtail his fundamental right to travel abroad under Article 21 of the Constitution, clarified the Court, while directing the Bureau of Immigration to immediately communicate the cancellation order, signalling strict judicial scrutiny of LOC-based travel restrictions imposed on directors and guarantors of defaulting companies.
MSMED framework cannot be invoked to defeat an independent arbitration agreement covering defective supply disputes
The Madras High Court in the case of TI Clean Mobility vs Senatla Innovative EV Components [Arb O.P. (Com.Div.) No.83 of 2026] Dated July 31, 2026, has held that the MSMED framework cannot be invoked to defeat an independent arbitration agreement covering defective supply disputes. The Court observed that MSMED Act, 2006 is a special enactment whose non-obstante clause under Section 18 operates only within the confined sphere of Section 17, namely, recovery of unpaid amounts owed by a buyer to a supplier for goods supplied or services rendered. The Act does not contemplate disputes relating to defective supply, replacement costs, or damages for breach of contractual obligations by the supplier, and such disputes must be adjudicated under the independent arbitration agreement between the parties.
The Court undertook a detailed reading of Sections 15, 16, 17, and 18 of the MSMED Act and observed that Section 18 opens with a non-obstante clause, but its scope is restricted to references relating to amounts due under Section 17, which deals with recovery of unpaid dues for goods supplied or services rendered. The Court further observed that Section 15 casts the liability to pay on the buyer, while Section 16 provides for levy of interest, and that the entire framework of the MSMED Act is geared towards ensuring timely payment to micro and small enterprises.
Critically, the Court noted that the MSMED Act restricts itself to recovery of unpaid amounts under Section 15 read with interest under Section 16, and does not extend to disputes concerning defective supply or failure to supply goods. The Court further observed that any dispute falling outside the realm of Section 17 read with Section 18 cannot be the subject matter of conciliation and arbitration under sub-sections (2) and (3) of Section 18, and that an independent arbitration agreement dealing with other rights and liabilities of the parties cannot be overridden by the MSMED Act.
Where a resolution plan has been approved by the CoC with the requisite voting share, the Adjudicating Authority’s role is limited to verifying compliance with the mandatory requirements of Section 30(2) of the IBC and the corresponding CIRP Regulations, and the NCLT cannot sit in appeal over the commercial wisdom of the CoC
The Kolkata Bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) in the case of Tatanagar Financial Services vs Sis Mohan Real Estate [I.A. (IB) NO. 488/KB/2025] dated August 06, 2026, has held that where a resolution plan has been approved by the CoC with the requisite voting share, the Adjudicating Authority’s role is limited to verifying compliance with the mandatory requirements of Section 30(2) of the IBC and the corresponding CIRP Regulations, and the NCLT cannot sit in appeal over the commercial wisdom of the CoC.
The NCLT clarified that the resolution plan must provide for payment of CIRP costs, repayment of operational creditors’ debts, management of the corporate debtor’s affairs, and a mechanism for implementation and supervision, and must not contravene any provision of law. Essentially, the Tribunal cautioned that upon approval under Section 31 of IBC, all claims not forming part of the resolution plan stand extinguished, but the liability of personal guarantors is not ipso facto discharged.
The Tribunal reiterated that once the CoC has approved a resolution plan by the requisite percentage of voting share, it is imperative for the Resolution Professional to submit the same to the NCLT, and the NCLT’s discretion is circumscribed by Section 31 to a scrutiny limited to the requirements specified in Section 30(2). The NCLT categorically held that it is not endowed with the powers to analyse or evaluate the commercial decision of the CoC, and since the resolution plan was approved by 100% voting share, the Adjudicating Authority could not interfere in the same.
Regarding reliefs, waivers, and concessions, the NCLT held that it has the power to grant only those reliefs that fall within the ambit of the I&B Code and the Companies Act, 2013, while reliefs pertaining to other governmental authorities would have to be dealt with by the respective competent authorities, keeping in view the spirit of the Code. On extinguishment of claims, the Bench reiterated that all claims not part of the resolution plan shall stand extinguished on the date of approval, including statutory dues owed to government authorities. On guarantors, the NCLT reiterated that approval of a resolution plan does not per se discharge the liability of personal guarantors, and appropriate action against them may be taken in accordance with law.
An independent professional certifying statutory e-Forms does not fall within the definition of an “officer” or “officer-in-default” under the Companies Act, 1956 or 2013, and the ROC cannot directly prosecute such a professional under Section 439(2) of the 2013 Act unless active criminal complicity is prima facie established
The Calcutta High Court in the case of Registrar of Companies, West Bengal vs Ranjan Meghani [CRR 4267 OF 2022] dated August 01, 2026, has laid down that an independent professional certifying statutory e-Forms does not fall within the definition of an “officer” or “officer-in-default” under the Companies Act, 1956 or 2013, and the ROC cannot directly prosecute such a professional under Section 439(2) of the 2013 Act unless active criminal complicity is prima facie established. However, the Court qualified this by holding that the proposition that an independent professional can never be prosecuted under Section 628 merely because they are not an executive officer is legally incorrect, and active complicity with mens rea can attract the rigour.
On the question of whether an independent Chartered Accountant certifying statutory e-Forms falls within the definition of an “officer” or “officer-in-default” under the Companies Act, the Court observed that the status of an “officer” under Section 2(30) of the 1956 Act and Section 2(59) of the 2013 Act is intrinsically linked to executive governance, managerial control, and internal administration of the company. Section 2(60)(v) of the 2013 Act expressly carves out a statutory protection, declaring that a person who gives advice to the Board in a professional capacity shall not be deemed an officer in default. This exclusion, read alongside Section 226 of the 1956 Act (which disqualifies company officers from acting as independent auditors), reinforces the fundamental dichotomy between internal executive management and external professional advisors. Expanding the definition of “officer” to encompass an independent professional certifier would distort the statutory architecture of company law.
Consequently, under Section 439(2) of the 2013 Act (Section 621 of the 1956 Act), the ROC lacks the direct statutory locus standi to prosecute an independent professional under provisions designed for internal corporate default, unless active criminal complicity is prima facie established, added the Court.
On the substantive scope of Section 628 of the 1956 Act, the Court observed that the section penalises “any person” who makes a false statement in any return, report, certificate, or other document required under the Act, knowing it to be false, or who intentionally conceals any material fact. The essence of the offence is not merely the submission of an inaccurate document but the conscious, deliberate introduction of falsehood coupled with the requisite mens rea. Criminal penal liability of this severity can never be fastened vicariously, on the basis of loose suspicion, or through abstract association. A rigorous scrutiny of the complaint revealed a fatal lacuna: the complaint explicitly attributed all mala fide intention, physical execution, and deliberate concealment to the company director, Shri Biswajit Biswas, while concerning the Chartered Accountant, it contained only a generic assertion that he certified the forms.
IBC moratorium cannot be invoked by a mortgagor to obstruct SARFAESI proceedings. Where a petitioner is admittedly a mortgagor and not a creditor under the IBC, the moratorium provisions of the Code cannot be used as a shield to obstruct a secured creditor’s enforcement action under the SARFAESI Act
The Bombay High Court in the case of Ravijyot Finance and Leasing vs Unity Small Finance Bank [Writ Petition No. 703 of 2023] dated August 17, 2026, has held that IBC moratorium cannot be invoked by a mortgagor to obstruct SARFAESI proceedings. The Court further held that where a petitioner is admittedly a mortgagor and not a creditor under the IBC, the moratorium provisions of the Code cannot be used as a shield to obstruct a secured creditor’s enforcement action under the SARFAESI Act.
Briefly, the Petitioner’s case was that since the moratorium period of 180 days under the IBC was over and no extension had been granted, the Bank could not proceed with the sale until the NCLT applied its mind and passed an order under Sections 121 and 122 of the IBC. The Petitioner had admittedly earlier filed a Securitisation Application before the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) challenging the first sale notice, and that proceeding was still pending. The Petitioner had also filed Commercial Suit challenging the very mortgage as forged and fabricated, and an Interim Application seeking urgent interim relief to stall the auction was rejected by a Single Judge of the Bombay High Court on 24th March 2026.
The Court observed that the Petitioner was admittedly the mortgagor of the subject property and was attempting to create a false impression that it was a creditor under the IBC whose cause the Bank, another creditor, was breaking ranks from. The Court characterised the Petition as yet another attempt by a mortgagor to wriggle out of the situation without availing the statutory remedy under the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act).
The Court also noted that the question of law sought to be raised on the basis of IBC provisions was nothing but a desperate attempt to avoid steps being taken by the Bank, which was admittedly a secured creditor under the SARFAESI Act. The Court reiterated that moratorium under the IBC would not apply to the subject property, which exclusively belonged to the Petitioner as mortgagor. The Court further observed that the Writ Petition was not maintainable against a private bank in view of settled law, particularly since the Respondent private Bank was the only Respondent in the Petition.
The High Court emphasised that the availability of an efficacious statutory remedy before the DRT, coupled with the petitioner’s own admission of having already approached the DRT against an earlier sale notice, rendered the writ petition non-maintainable. The Court further held that suppression of the NCLT order declining extension of moratorium violated the clean hands doctrine, and that writ jurisdiction could not be invoked against a private bank in any event.
Date of submission of complete Form FA, and not the date of settlement, determines the applicable law, and 90% CoC approval is mandatory under the amended regime. The right to withdraw a CIRP application under Section 12A is governed by the provisions in force on the date when the complete Form FA is submitted to the IRP
The Chennai Bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) in the case of Neeraj Agarwal vs S. Arun [CP(IB)/211(CHE)/2022] dated July 29, 2026, has ruled that the date of submission of complete Form FA, and not the date of settlement, determines the applicable law, and 90% CoC approval is mandatory under the amended regime. The NCLT ruled that the right to withdraw a CIRP application under Section 12A is governed by the provisions in force on the date when the complete Form FA is submitted to the IRP.
The Tribunal held that under the amended Section 12A read with amended Regulation 30A, withdrawal requires 90% voting share approval of the CoC, and no such approval having been obtained, the withdrawal application is non-compliant and liable to be dismissed.
The Tribunal noted that both the IBC Amendment Act, 2026 (notified on May 26, 2026) and the IBBI Third Amendment Regulations, 2026 (notified on June 01, 2026) were in force on June 01, 2026, the date when the complete Form FA was submitted. The Tribunal rejected the contention of the operational creditor and suspended director that the amendment was prospective and would apply only to new cases admitted after notification, observing that the meaning of prospective is that it applies from the date it was notified.
The Tribunal held that Section 6 of the General Clauses Act, 1897 would not be applicable because no right had accrued to the operational creditor under the pre-amended Section 12A, as the complete Form FA was submitted only on June 01, 2026 when the amended provisions were already in force. The right to file a Section 12A application accrues only upon submission of the complete Form FA and payment of CIRP costs and fees, both of which were completed only on June 01, 2026.
0.25% levy introduced by the IBBI with effect from Oct 01, 2022 satisfies the test of a regulatory fee does not amount to a colourable exercise of power, neither arbitrary nor violative of Article 14 of the Constitution, as it applies uniformly to all resolution plans approved on or after Oct 01, 2022
The Bombay High Court in the case of Hazel Mercantile vs IBBI [Writ Petition No. 3842 of 2026] dated August 19, 2026, has held that the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) performs wide-ranging regulatory functions throughout the CIRP and that the levy introduced by the IBBI with effect from Oct 01, 2022 satisfies the test of a regulatory fee as evolved in Indian constitutional jurisprudence. The levy was introduced vide Regulation 31A of the IBBI Regulations which specified that the regulatory fee would be calculated at 0.25% of the realisable value to creditors under the resolution plan approved under Section 31 of the IBC and shall be payable to the Board, where such realisable value was more than the liquidation value. The Court further held that the Board is well within its powers to levy the regulatory fee as part of the insolvency resolution process costs.
The Court also held that the principle of ejusdem generis does not apply to clause (e) of Section 5(13) of the IBC, as it is a residuary clause and clauses (a) to (d) do not form a single class or genus. Also, the Court clarified that the regulatory fee is not a tax masquerading as a fee, as the Board provides broad-based and general quid pro quo services to all stakeholders in the CIRP, including the successful resolution applicants, and the law has evolved to the extent that specific service is not required to be demonstrated for a regulatory fee.
The Court held that the regulatory fee is not excessive or disproportionate, as the audited accounts of the Board show that prior to the introduction of the fee, the Board was suffering a deficit funded by Government contributions, and after the fee, the Board is able to meet its expenditure with some surplus, which is necessary for financial independence of the regulator. The Court emphasised that the proviso to Regulation 31A is prospective and not retrospective, as the NCLT has the power under Section 31 of the IBC to send the resolution plan back to the CoC for reconsideration or to give notice to rectify defects, and the resolution plan is “cast in stone” only insofar as the CoC and the resolution applicant are concerned, and not insofar as the adjudicatory authority is concerned.
Lastly, the Court held that the regulatory fee does not amount to a colourable exercise of power, as the petitioners have not challenged the validity of Sections 5(13), 53, 196(1)(c), and 240(2)(d) of the IBC, and the delegation of power to the Board is not unbridled or excessive. The Court held that the regulatory fee is not arbitrary or violative of Article 14 of the Constitution, as it applies uniformly to all resolution plans approved on or after Oct 01, 2022.
Use of different inks for the signature and other entries on a cheque does not by itself render the negotiable instrument invalid or cast doubt on its probable execution, and keeping a substantial sum of money at home is not an improbability in law unless the accused establishes the same through evidence
The Kerala High Court in the case of D. Chandran vs S. Anilkumar [CRL.A NO. 932 OF 2021] dated August 07, 2026, has held that use of different inks for the signature and other entries on a cheque does not by itself render the negotiable instrument invalid or cast doubt on its probable execution, and keeping a substantial sum of money at home is not an improbability in law unless the accused establishes the same through evidence. The Court also clarified that once the complainant discharges his initial burden by proving issuance of the cheque, its dishonour, and issuance of statutory notice, the presumptions under Sections 118 and 139 of the NI Act operate in his favour. These presumptions are rebuttable, but the accused must raise a probable defence meeting the standard of preponderance of probabilities, not mere possibility.
The Court explained that a bare denial or an uncorroborated assertion of repayment is insufficient to rebut the presumptions. The burden of specifically pleading and proving the complainant’s lack of financial capacity rests on the accused, and in the absence of such a plea in the reply notice, the complainant cannot be faulted for not adducing evidence on financial capacity.
The Court observed that the accused admitted borrowing Rs. 2.35 lakhs from the complainant and also admitted issuance of cheque bearing his signature. While there is evidence of repayment of Rs. 35,000/-, no documentary evidence was tendered to prove discharge of the remaining Rs. 2 lakhs, apart from the oral testimony of defence witness and the contention in the reply notice. The Court reiterated the settled legal position that when a party asserts discharge of a liability, he must prove the same with cogent and convincing evidence, and a bare denial of passing of consideration would not aid the case of the accused.
The Court found that the trial court erred in denying the presumptions under Sections 118 and 139 of the NI Act to the complainant. The complainant had successfully discharged his initial burden by proving issuance of the cheque, its dishonour, and the statutory notice. The trial court’s reliance on the improbability of keeping Rs. 7 lakhs at the residence was misplaced, as keeping money at home by itself is not an improbability unless established by evidence.
REGULATORY UPDATES
SEBI cautions investors against “live trading strategies/real-time strategies” being offered on social media platforms
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) vide its Press Release PR No.48/2026 dated 17 August, 2026, has cautioned investors against “live trading strategies/real-time strategies” being offered on social media platforms. It urged investors to remain vigilant while carrying out transactions in the securities market. Referring to its May 8, 2026 circular, SEBI said market price data can be shared for investor education purposes only without monetary incentives and with a thirty-day delay. Those engaged only in educational activities cannot use market data from the previous 30 days, indicate future prices, or give advice or recommendations on securities.
SEBI said that live market data cannot generally be shared, except for market functioning or regulatory purposes. It noted that some people on social media are offering “live trading strategies/real-time strategies” and giving real-time tips on stock-market positions. The regulator observed that these live trading sessions attract a large number of viewers, with live chats also enabled, and unregistered advisory services are also exchanged.
SEBI said some of these individuals present themselves as securities-market experts, offering guidance on when to invest or exit, trading strategies and positions in market indices. Some also claim to trade in real time while displaying their trading performance, live data based market patterns and expected targets. Accordingly, the Regulator advised the investors to not trust claims of such persons and not to take their investment decisions on such live trading sessions and to deal with only SEBI registered intermediaries.
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SEBI Amends NDCF Framework for InvITs to Allow Add-Back of Debt-Funded Major Maintenance Expenses for Road Projects
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (“SEBI”) has issued a Circular No.: HO/17/11/17(5)2026-DDHS-POD2/I/18791/2026 dated August 14, 2026, amending the framework for computation of Net Distributable Cash Flows (“NDCF”) for Infrastructure Investment Trusts (“InvITs”). The amendments stem from a request received by SEBI from an industry association to review the existing framework, with the objective of permitting the addition of debt-funded major maintenance expenses for road projects while calculating NDCF. The changes have been finalised based on the recommendations of the Hybrid Securities Advisory Committee (“HySAC”) and a public consultation process undertaken pursuant thereto. The amendments are being made to Section F (Para 3.19) titled “Framework for calculation of Net Distributable Cash Flows (NDCFs)” of Chapter 3 of the Master Circular for InvITs dated July 11, 2025.
Key updates:
- Amendment at HoldCo/SPV Level: Under the revised framework, a new line item has been introduced in Table S.No. (I.) titled ‘Computation of Net Distributable Cash Flow at HoldCo/SPV Level’. This addition permits an add-back of payments made towards major maintenance expense for road projects to the extent such expenditure is funded by external borrowing, subject to Note 12. The new line item appears after the existing add-back for proceeds from sale of infrastructure investments, infrastructure assets, or shares of SPVs/Investment Entity not distributed pursuant to an earlier plan to re-invest under Regulation 18(7) of the InvIT Regulations.
- Amendment at Trust Level: A corresponding amendment has been made to Table S.No. (II.) titled ‘Computation of Net Distributable Cash Flow at Trust Level’. A new line item has been inserted to allow the add-back of payments made towards major maintenance expense for road projects to the extent funded by external borrowing, again subject to Note 12. This mirrors the change at the HoldCo/SPV level and ensures consistency in the treatment of such expenses across both levels of the InvIT structure.
- Substitution of Notes 4 and 6: Note No. 4 and Note No. 6 under S. No. (III.) titled ‘Notes/Other Rules’ have been substituted. The revised Note 4 addresses surplus cash available in InvITs/HoldCos/SPVs arising from three specified scenarios, namely, the 10% of NDCF withheld in line with the Regulations in any earlier year or half year, surplus cash available in a new HoldCo/SPV on acquisition by the InvIT, or any other reason excluding surplus cash available due to any debt raise. Importantly, the revised Note 4 carves out an exception permitting surplus cash available on account of payments made for Major Maintenance expenditure for road projects to the extent funded by external debt to be distributed, subject to conditions specified in Note 12 and adequate disclosures. The revised Note 6 expressly provides that no Trust or SPV can distribute any cash flows by obtaining external debt, except to the extent clarified in Notes 2, 7 and 12, while excluding any working capital or overdraft facilities obtained by the Trust or SPVs as part of treasury management or working capital purposes, provided such facilities are squared off within the quarter.
- Insertion of New Note 12: A new Note No. 12 has been added under S. No. (III.) titled ‘Notes/Other Rules’, which sets out the conditions subject to which payments made towards major maintenance expense for road projects funded by external debt shall be added back. The term “Road Project” has been defined to mean a project in the ‘Roads and bridges’ infrastructure sub-sector as mentioned in the notification of the Ministry of Finance dated September 19, 2025, including any amendments or additions thereto. “Major maintenance expense” has been defined as expenditure incurred on maintenance of a road project which is not routine maintenance and is in accordance with the obligations and requirements specified in the concession agreement.
- Unitholder Approval Requirement: The framework mandates that unitholder approval pursuant to Regulation 22(5) of the InvIT Regulations shall be undertaken before adding back payments made for Major Maintenance expense for road projects to the extent funded by external borrowing. Such approval requires votes cast in favour of the resolution to be at least sixty per cent of total votes cast. The approval is required to be undertaken for each project, whether held at InvIT level or at SPV/HoldCo level, with respect to which the investment manager proposes to raise borrowing for major maintenance payments. The approval may be taken on a one-time basis covering the debt already availed or proposed to be availed for the entire project life cycle, or for specific major maintenance expense. Any deviations requiring additional debt from the previously approved proposal would require fresh unitholder approval prior to availing the debt.
- Disclosure Requirements in Explanatory Statement: The explanatory statement to the notice convening the unitholder meeting is required to inter-alia disclose the names and details of the projects, SPVs, or HoldCos for which the debt for Major Maintenance expense is proposed to be raised or is already raised, the category of all expenses which will be considered as Major Maintenance expenses, indicative year-wise and project-wise estimates of the Major Maintenance expenses for which borrowing is proposed to be raised as per the latest available valuation report, the possible impact on future growth potential of the InvIT due to the use of borrowing for Major Maintenance expenses, the present and future impact on distribution to unitholders, and the other funding alternatives in case debt is not available in future for funding Major Maintenance expenses. The circular also provides suggested disclaimer language indicating that Major Maintenance Debt is similar to a loan taken for capital expenditure, although Major Maintenance expense cannot be capitalised as per accounting principles, and that such debt would form part of the aggregate borrowing of the InvIT and result in reduction in the leverage headroom available in future years.
- Statutory Auditor Certification: A certificate from the statutory auditor is required to be obtained certifying that the major maintenance expenses incurred are in line with the obligations and requirements for major maintenance stated under the concession agreements, and that the payments made for such Major Maintenance expenses are funded by external borrowings. The statutory auditor may rely on an independent expert for certifying that the major maintenance expenses incurred are in line with the obligations and requirements for major maintenance stated under the concession agreements. Only such payments as certified by the statutory auditor of the InvIT will be allowed to be added back for the purpose of NDCF calculation.
- Ongoing Disclosure Obligations: The InvIT is required to make certain disclosures as part of its financial results and Annual, Half-yearly, and Quarterly Reports, as applicable. The Net Borrowing Ratio provided under Chapter 4 is required to segregate the amount and percentage of borrowing taken for major maintenance expenses. The notes to the NDCF statement are required to disclose, for each project, SPV, HoldCo, and the InvIT, the aggregate amount of borrowing raised in the concerned period for meeting Major Maintenance expenses and the aggregate amount of outstanding debt for Major Maintenance expenses as on the date. Additionally, the debt maturity profiles required under InvIT Regulations are required to specifically segregate and highlight borrowing taken for Major Maintenance expenses.
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SEBI Eases Framework for Online Bond Platform Providers; Permits IFSCA Products and 54EC Bonds
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has issued a Circular No.: HO/17/11/(2)2026-DDHS-POD1/I/18769/2026 dated August 14, 2026, modifying the regulatory framework governing Online Bond Platform Providers (OBPPs) with the stated objective of promoting ease of doing business. The framework for OBPPs was originally prescribed by SEBI through a notification dated November 09, 2022, under Regulation 51A of the SEBI (Issue and Listing of Non-Convertible Securities) Regulations, 2021, and was subsequently streamlined through various circulars covering registration, permissible products and services, and operational requirements. The present circular has been issued in response to suggestions received from stakeholders and seeks to widen the product universe available on OBPPs while rationalising certain compliance obligations.
Key Modifications Introduced
The circular introduces three principal modifications to Chapter XXI of the SEBI Master Circular for issue and listing of Non-Convertible Securities, Securitised Debt Instruments, Security Receipts, Municipal Debt Securities and Commercial Paper dated October 15, 2025. First, OBPPs are now permitted to offer products, securities, or services regulated by the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA). Second, OBPPs are permitted to offer bonds issued under Section 54EC of the Income Tax Act, 1961, or Section 85 of the Income-tax Act, 2025. Third, the compliance officer requirement has been relaxed, replacing the earlier mandate of appointing a Company Secretary with a more flexible prescription aligned with SEBI (Stock Brokers) Regulations, 2026.
Revised Permissible Products and Services
Clause 5.2 of the NCS Master Circular has been modified to expand the list of permissible offerings on an Online Bond Platform. OBPPs may now offer listed debt securities, listed municipal debt securities, and listed securitised debt instruments; debt securities, municipal debt securities, and securitised debt instruments proposed to be listed through a public offering; listed Government Securities, State Development Loans, and Treasury Bills; listed Sovereign Gold Bonds; other products or securities or services regulated by a financial sector regulator, namely SEBI, RBI, IRDAI, IFSCA, or PFRDA; and bonds issued under Section 54EC of the Income Tax Act, 1961, or Section 85 of the Income-tax Act, 2025.
Conditions for IFSCA-Regulated and 54EC Offerings:
- For products regulated by other financial sector regulators, OBPPs may offer them either under a different tab on the online bond platform or on any other website or platform, and such offerings shall be governed by the directions and stipulations of the respective regulator. The grievance redressal mechanism for such products is to be specified by the OBPPs on their platform. In the specific case of IFSCA-regulated products, OBPPs must offer them in the manner prescribed for SEBI-registered stock brokers operating within GIFT-IFSC and in compliance with applicable FEMA guidelines, including the Overseas Investment Rules and limits under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme. Such products must be clearly labelled as international or overseas instruments to prevent confusion with domestic debt securities.
- For bonds issued under Section 54EC of the Income Tax Act, 1961, or Section 85 of the Income-tax Act, 2025: OBPPs may offer them under a different tab or on any other website or platform, but are required to provide a disclaimer stating that these are tax-specific instruments and that the grievance redressal mechanism lies with the issuer and not with SEBI. OBPPs must also disclose the features of 54EC bonds, including eligible issuers, lock-in period, investment limit, non-transferable status, tax features, application size, and exemption from listing requirements under the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015. Further, OBPPs must prominently disclose that investment in these instruments is intended for investors seeking to avail the associated tax benefits, subject to satisfaction of eligibility criteria and other conditions prescribed under the applicable provisions of the Income-tax Act.
Compliance Officer Requirement:
Clause 1.1 of Annexure-XXIA of the NCS Master Circular has been modified to provide that the entity must appoint a Compliance Officer as per the SEBI (Stock Brokers) Regulations, 2026, who shall comply with the certification requirements, namely the NISM-Series-III-A: Securities Intermediaries Compliance (Non-Fund) Certification Examination, as prescribed from time to time. This replaces the earlier requirement of appointing a Company Secretary as the compliance officer.
Directions to Stock Exchanges and Effective Date:
The circular clarifies that all other provisions of the NCS Master Circular shall remain unchanged and that the circular shall come into force with immediate effect. Stock Exchanges have been directed to take necessary steps for implementation, make amendments to relevant bye-laws, rules, and regulations wherever applicable, and bring the provisions of the circular to the notice of stock brokers while disseminating the same on their websites. The circular has been issued in exercise of powers conferred under Section 11(1) of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992, read with Regulation 55(1) of the SEBI (Issue and Listing of Non-Convertible Securities) Regulations, 2021, to protect the interest of investors in securities and to promote the development of, and to regulate, the securities market.
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SEBI proposes easing Know Your Client process for individual Persons Resident Outside India
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) vide its Press Release PR No.46/2026 dated 14 August, 2026, has proposed easing the Know Your Client (KYC) process for individual Persons Resident Outside India (PROIs). This includes Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs), and foreign nationals. The proposal would allow individual PROI clients in Financial Action Task Force (FATF)-compliant countries to complete digital onboarding without being physically present in India. Intermediaries would be allowed to accept KYC records and related documents digitally from such clients.
KYC is the process through which a financial intermediary verifies a client’s identity and other details. SEBI’s consultation paper proposes changes to several steps in this process for clients who are outside India. At present, the KYC framework requires the client’s physical presence in India for digital onboarding. SEBI has proposed removing this requirement for PROI clients located in FATF-compliant countries.
Under the proposed framework, a PROI client could submit the KYC form either physically or digitally. A digital KYC form could be submitted using an electronic signature. A scanned copy of a physical KYC form under electronic signature would also be permitted. This would give clients outside India an alternative to sending the physical form by courier. SEBI has also proposed greater flexibility for specimen signatures. A client could submit a cropped image of the specimen signature while submitting the KYC documents digitally.
The client would then have to provide a wet signature before the intermediary during Video In-Person Verification (VIPV). The intermediary would verify whether the wet signature matches the signature submitted earlier. The proposal also provides alternatives where the original identity or address document is not produced for verification. These include equivalent electronic documents through DigiLocker and documents issued by the issuing authority through a verifiable mechanism.
Aadhaar-based electronic KYC authentication could also be used. Copies of documents attested by specified certifying authorities would be another option. The specified authorities include notaries, authorised officials of overseas branches of scheduled commercial banks registered in India, and branches of overseas banks that have relationships with Indian banks. They also include court magistrates, judges and Indian embassies or consulates in the country where the client resides.
Physical In-Person Verification (IPV) would continue to be required. If physical IPV is not feasible, the intermediary could conduct VIPV. The proposed safeguards include recording the client’s consent and carrying out liveness checks. The process would also require random actions by the client during the video interaction and live GPS coordinates. The system would have to prevent connections through spoofed IP addresses, VPNs, or proxy servers. The client’s location would also have to match the country specified in the KYC form and the officially valid or deemed officially valid document.
The proposal further requires the client’s photograph captured during VIPV to match the photograph submitted in the KYC documents. The process would also require end-to-end encryption. VIPV would have to be conducted by an authorised official of the intermediary. The process would also be subject to concurrent audit. SEBI has separately proposed making KYC records of individual PROIs portable. This would mean that a client would not have to repeat the KYC process when approaching another intermediary.
Attributes in the KYC record that have been verified with official or source databases would be tagged as “validated.” Other intermediaries could use these validated details while carrying out additional checks where required based on the client’s risk profile. The proposal would also allow an intermediary to rely on KYC undertaken by another SEBI-registered intermediary. It could also rely on KYC undertaken by an entity regulated by another financial sector regulator. The intermediary may rely on records obtained from the KYC Registration Agency (KRA).
For KYC undertaken by an entity regulated by another financial sector regulator, the records may be obtained from the Central KYC Records Registry (CKYCRR) through the KRA. The intermediary relying on the existing KYC would nevertheless remain ultimately responsible for its client’s KYC. It would also have to undertake enhanced KYC measures proportionate to the client’s risk profile. SEBI’s draft circular says the proposed provisions would come into effect 30 days after the circular is issued.
The proposed provisions would apply to the onboarding of PROI clients except those residing in FATF non-compliant countries. The existing requirements would continue to apply to PROI clients in FATF non-compliant countries. KYC undertaken before the proposed circular comes into effect would continue to be governed by the existing KYC provisions. SEBI has invited public comments on the proposal until September 4, 2026.
Click here to read/ download the original press release
Legal Updates (Aug 10 – Aug 15, 2026)
Legal Updates (Aug 10 – Aug 15, 2026)
CASE UPDATES
When an Advocate renders services as an Insolvency Professional, the role in which he acts, that is, as an Insolvency Professional, is determinative of the nature of services for the purpose of classification under GST, and not the underlying professional qualification or registration of the individual. Thus, the reverse charge mechanism applicable to Advocates would not extend to services rendered by Advocates in the capacity of Insolvency Professionals
The Delhi High Court in the case of Kanwal Chaudhary vs IBBI [W.P.(C) 9410/2021] dated August 13, 2026, has upheld the IBBI’s position that ‘insolvency and receivership services’ rendered by Advocates as IRPs/RPs constitute a distinct statutory class governed by the IBC, and not by the Advocates Act, 1961, for the purposes of GST. The Court held that when an Advocate renders services as an Insolvency Professional, the role in which he acts, that is, as an Insolvency Professional, is determinative of the nature of services for the purpose of classification under GST, and not the underlying professional qualification or registration of the individual.
Services rendered by an Advocate acting as an Insolvency Professional would fall under the specific head of ‘insolvency and receivership services’ under the Scheme of Classification of Services, rather than the general head of ‘legal services’, irrespective of the individual’s underlying qualification as an Advocate, added the Court.
The Court ruled that Insolvency Professionals constitute a distinct statutory class governed exclusively by the IBC and the IBBI Regulations, and the fact that such persons may also possess other qualifications or registrations would not alter the class to which they belong for the purpose of GST. The Court further held that the Advocates Act, 1961 and the IBC are required to be read in a harmonious manner, and permitting Advocates to additionally qualify as Insolvency Professionals does not derogate from the Advocates Act but merely offers another stream for rendering specialised services.
The Court framed three questions for determination: the GST mechanism applicable to Advocates, the GST mechanism applicable to Insolvency Professionals, and the GST mechanism applicable to Advocates who act as Insolvency Professionals. On the first aspect, the Court noted that under Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate), an ‘advocate’ is defined with reference to the Advocates Act, 1961, and ‘legal service’ is defined to mean any service provided in relation to advice, consultancy or assistance in any branch of law, including representational services before any court, tribunal or authority.
Further, Notification No. 13/2017-Central Tax (Rate) specifies that services supplied by an individual advocate or firm of advocates by way of legal services to a business entity shall be subject to GST on reverse charge basis, payable by the recipient. The Court further took note of the Coordinate Bench orders in J.K. Mittal & Co. v. UOI [W.P.(C) 5709/2017], which held that all legal services provided by advocates, law firms, or LLPs of advocates would continue to be governed by the reverse charge mechanism unless they opted for voluntary registration under Section 25(3) of the CGST Act.
On the second aspect, the Court observed that under Section 9(1) of the CGST Act, the default rule is that the supplier is liable to pay GST under the forward charge mechanism, and since services rendered by Insolvency Professionals are not separately notified under Notification No. 13/2017, they fall within the default rule and are governed by the forward charge mechanism. The Court also examined Regulation 5(c) of the IBBI (Insolvency Professionals) Regulations, 2016, which prescribes multiple alternative eligibility routes, including ten years’ experience as an Advocate enrolled with the Bar Council, Chartered Accountant, Company Secretary, or Cost Accountant, or qualifications in management.
The Court further observed that under the Scheme of Classification of Services, ‘insolvency and receivership services’ are classified under a specific and independent sub-head 998241, which is co-ordinate with, and not subordinate to, the sub-head 99821 pertaining to ‘legal services’. The Court applied the well-settled principle that a specific entry prevails over a general entry, as affirmed by the Supreme Court in Moorco (India) Ltd. v. Collector of Customs, Madras [(1994) Supp (3) SCC 562] and Commissioner of Commercial Tax v. A.R. Thermosets (P.) Ltd. [(2016) 16 SCC 122]. The Court also noted the affidavit dated 6th September 2025 filed by the Bar Council of India, which affirmed that when an Advocate is appointed as an Insolvency Professional, the nature of services rendered is significantly different from conventional legal practice, and such services are taxable under the forward charge mechanism.
The Court therefore concluded that the reverse charge mechanism applicable to Advocates would not extend to services rendered by Advocates in the capacity of Insolvency Professionals, and such persons would be governed by the forward charge mechanism applicable to Insolvency Professionals as a class. Accordingly, the Court directed that Advocates enrolled with the Bar Council, who act as Insolvency Professionals under the IBC, shall be governed by the forward charge mechanism, and shall be liable to obtain GST registration and comply with all consequential requirements under the CGST Act, 2017 and the rules and notifications framed thereunder, in the same manner as applicable to Insolvency Professionals as a class.
A winding-up proceeding and a civil suit for recovery of money are distinct and independent remedies, and the period spent in prosecuting insolvency or winding-up proceedings cannot be excluded under Section 14 of the Limitation Act for the purpose of filing a delayed civil suit for recovery
The Supreme Court in the case of Mageba Bridge Products vs Trade Centre [Civil Appeal No.10658 of 2026] dated August 12, 2026, has held that a winding-up proceeding and a civil suit for recovery of money are distinct and independent remedies, and the initiation of one does not impact the limitation for the other. Referring to Yeswant Deorao Deshmukh v. Walchand Ramchand Kothari [1950 SCC 766] and Jignesh Shah v. Union of India [(2019) 10 SCC 750] the Court clarified that the period spent in prosecuting insolvency or winding-up proceedings cannot be excluded under Section 14 of the Limitation Act for the purpose of filing a delayed civil suit for recovery.
The Court further held that the suit was filed on the strength of individual bills and not on the basis of a running account, and no document was attached to show that amount to an acknowledgment of the debt sought to be recovered. The acceptance of two specific bills before the Company Court was not an admission giving up the plea of limitation, and the Company Court was not competent to extend the limitation period. The claim for recovery was accordingly held to be barred by limitation, and the suit stood dismissed.
The Court found that the Memorandum issued by the Registrar of Firms, West Bengal, was indeed sufficient evidence to prove the registration of the respondent-firm. The Registration Number L73931 was allotted to the firm on May 14, 2010, and the certified copy of Form-VIII of the Registrar of Firms corroborated this fact. The Court also noted that the application to produce additional documents was rightly allowed since it furthered the cause of justice and enabled the court to pronounce judgment. Thus, the mere deduction shown with respect to the payment of admitted bills in the schedule to the plaint did not make it a running account. The notice of demand, the reply issued, or the payment made on admission of two bills, with disputes raised with respect to the other bills, demolished the case set up by the respondent-plaintiff on cause of action.
A bank is entitled to claim interest calculated and maintained in a separate suspense account, in addition to the outstanding principal loan amount, and that a certificate issued by the bank showing only the principal outstanding must be read in the context of the banking accounting system followed after NPA classification
The Supreme Court in the case of Punjab National Bank vs Shree Jyoti Education and Management Trust World [Special Leave Petition (C) Nos. 27363-27364 of 2024] dated August 12, 2026, has reiterated that borrowers cannot cherry-pick figures from bank certificates while ignoring the standard accounting treatment of interest after NPA classification. The Apex Court held that a bank is entitled to claim interest calculated and maintained in a separate suspense account, in addition to the outstanding principal loan amount, and that a certificate issued by the bank showing only the principal outstanding must be read in the context of the banking accounting system followed after NPA classification.
The Court observed that the figure of Rs. 31.99 lakhs mentioned in PNB’s certificate dated 24 December 2020 did not take into account the interest component reflected in a separate suspense account maintained by the bank. As per the standard banking accounting system and applicable RBI guidelines, once a loan account is classified as a non-performing asset, interest stops being reflected in the loan account and is instead maintained in a separate suspense account.
The Court pointed out that as on 30 June 2017, the date of NPA classification, the principal loan amount along with interest calculated up to that date stood at Rs. 1.25 crores and not at Rs. 64.25 lakhs as claimed by the Trust. The Court further observed that the Trust and its trustees could not be permitted to blithely ignore the banking accounting system and come up with different calculations at different points of time to suit their own interests. The Bench found the Trust’s self-serving statement of account, claiming a negative balance and seeking refund of excess payments, to be patently erroneous and mischievous.
The Court also noted that the Trust had taken inconsistent stands at different stages, before the DRT contending that the interest rate was excessive and that they were liable to pay only Rs. 32.63 lakhs and before the High Court contending that only Rs. 29.55 lakhs was payable based on the certificate dated 24 December 2020. Referring to Section 2(g) of the Recovery of Debts and Bankruptcy Act, 1993, the Court observed that the definition of ‘debt’ expressly includes interest, leaving no room for dispute that the interest component forms part of the debt due to PNB.
The Court also relied on Section 19(20) of the Recovery of Debts due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993, which empowers the DRT to pass orders for payment of interest from the date the amount is found due until realisation, and on Section 21A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, which bars courts from re-opening transactions between a bank and its debtor on the ground that the rate of interest is excessive. The Court further reiterated that banks must plead and prove the rates of interest charged, file statements of account with particulars of debit entries, and that interest on loans may be charged on periodical rests and capitalised on the unpaid principal.
Under the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations 2015, the mere execution of a trade by an insider while in possession of Unpublished Price Sensitive Information constitutes the offense of insider trading regardless of the purpose behind the trade
The Supreme Court in the case of SEBI vs Rajeev Vasant Sheth [CIVIL APPEAL NO. 4905 OF 2022] dated August 11, 2026, has held that trading while in possession of Unpublished Price Sensitive Information (UPSI) automatically triggers insider trading liability, regardless of the purpose behind the trade under the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations 2015.
The legislative note appended to Regulation 4(1) explicitly precludes any judicial or regulatory inquiry into the motive behind the trade, the quantum of profit made or loss avoided, or the intended use of the transaction proceeds, making the possession of sensitive information at the time of trading the sole determinative factor for liability, added the Court.
The Court observed that the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations 2015 fundamentally altered the landscape of insider trading by introducing a specific legislative note to Regulation 4(1). This note embeds a strict legal presumption that any trade executed by a person in possession of UPSI is motivated by the knowledge and awareness of such information. The Court noted that the reasons for executing the trade or the ultimate purpose for which the proceeds are applied are entirely irrelevant under the 2015 regulatory framework.
Furthermore, the Court distinguished the present circumstances from previous judicial precedents that relied on the older 1992 Regulations, observing that the predecessor regulations did not contain a similar explicit bar against considering the underlying intent or purpose of the transactions. The Court also observed that the defences provided under the regulations are not exhaustive but must be of a similar nature to the specific defences listed, none of which protected the promoters in this instance.
Suspension of works cannot be treated as frustration of contract under Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, as frustration arises only from a supervening impossibility outside the control of the parties, and not from self-induced frustration arising out of a party’s own breach or election
The Supreme Court in the case of Srinivasa Reddy Velagala vs Sravanthi Infratech [CIVIL APPEAL NO. 876 OF 2021] dated August 12, 2026, has held that suspension of works cannot be treated as frustration of contract under Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, as frustration arises only from a supervening impossibility outside the control of the parties, and not from self-induced frustration arising out of a party’s own breach or election.
The Court further observed that since the EPC contract was silent on whether time was of the essence, and since the contractual obligations remained unfulfilled, the contract could not be said to have come to a natural close by efflux of time.
The Apex Court held that an EPC contract cannot be said to be frustrated by efflux of time merely because works have been suspended due to non-payment, as frustration under Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act applies only to a supervening impossibility and not to self-induced frustration arising from the act or election of a party.
REGULATORY UPDATES
SEBI Rolls Out ‘GARUDA’ Green-Channel Mechanism for Faster AIF Scheme Launches
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has rolled out the ‘Green-Channel:
AIF Rollout Upon Document Acknowledgement’ (GARUDA) Mechanism vide Circular No.: HO/19/19/11(2)2026-AFD-RAC2/I/17617/2026, dated July 30, 2026, operationalising the amendments notified to the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012 on July 14, 2026 through Gazette Notification No. CG-MH-E-14072026-274483. The objective is to ease and expedite the launch of schemes/funds by AIFs, and the circular substitutes Paragraphs 2.4 and 2.5 of the SEBI Master Circular for AIFs dated June 03, 2026, while inserting a new Paragraph 2.7 and modifying Paragraph 21.4.4.
Key takeaways:
Regular Schemes – 10 Working Day Cooling Period Retained: For Regular schemes (i.e., schemes other than LVFs, AI only funds and Angel Funds), AIFs can now proceed with the launch of a new scheme after 10 working days of filing the application with SEBI, unless otherwise advised by SEBI. For the first scheme, the launch can happen from the date of grant of SEBI registration, or after expiry of the 10 working day window, whichever is later. This effectively retains the prior “observation window” but codifies it as a default green-channel mechanism.
Regular Schemes — Filing and Due Diligence Requirements: The PPM of Regular schemes must be filed on the SEBI Intermediary portal along with: (i) a duly signed Merchant Banker Due Diligence Certificate in the format at Annexure 6; (ii) Fit and Proper declarations in respect of the AIF, Sponsor, Manager and Trustee as per Schedule II of the SEBI (Intermediaries) Regulations, 2008; (iii) Sponsor/Manager declarations on minimum continuing interest commitment; and (iv) PAN copies of the AIF, its scheme (if available), Sponsor, Manager, Trustee, directors/partners of Sponsor, Manager and Trustee, and key investment team members, accompanied by an Excel/Word/PDF file containing the names and PANs.
A critical advisory point is the independence requirement — the Merchant Banker must independently exercise due diligence on all disclosures in the PPM and satisfy itself as to the veracity and adequacy of disclosures. Importantly, the Merchant Banker appointed for filing the PPM cannot be an associate of the AIF, its sponsor, manager or trustee. The name of the Merchant Banker must be disclosed in the PPM, and a specific four-point disclaimer clause (covering due diligence certification, regulatory compliance, no SEBI approval implication, and accuracy responsibility) must mandatorily be included in the PPM. Both the Merchant Banker and the Manager remain responsible for accuracy and completeness of disclosures, with explicit liability exposure in case of any irregularity or lapse.
AI Only Funds, LVFs and Angel Funds — Merchant Banker Exemption: The most significant easing is for AI only funds, LVFs and Angel Funds, which are now exempt from filing their PPM with SEBI through a Merchant Banker and from incorporating SEBI’s comments in the PPM. AI only funds and LVFs can launch their scheme immediately upon filing of the PPM with SEBI, while first schemes of AI only funds and/or LVFs can be launched from the date of grant of SEBI registration. Angel Funds can proceed with circulation of the PPM to investors for soliciting funds from the date of grant of SEBI registration itself.
In lieu of the Merchant Banker Due Diligence Certificate, the PPM of AI only funds, LVFs and Angel Funds must be filed with a duly signed and stamped undertaking by the Chief Executive Officer (or equivalent) and the Compliance Officer of the Manager of the AIF, in the format specified at Annexure 7. A separate four-point disclaimer clause (similar in substance to the Regular scheme disclaimer but executed by the Manager alone) must be incorporated in the PPM. The Manager bears sole responsibility for accuracy and completeness of disclosures, with liability for any irregularity or lapse.
Naming Convention — A Mandatory Compliance Trigger: A notable operational change is the mandatory naming convention: any new scheme launched as an AI only scheme must carry the words ‘AI only fund’ or ‘AIOF’ at the end of the scheme name (e.g., ‘Xyz AI only fund’ or ‘Xyz AIOF’), and any new LVF scheme must carry the word ‘LVF’ at the end (e.g., ‘Abc LVF’). This has direct implications for existing AIFs contemplating reclassification or launch of new schemes under these categories.
Changes in PPM — Direct Filing Route: AI only funds, LVFs and Angel Funds are now exempt from the requirement of intimating changes in the terms of the PPM through a Merchant Banker. Such changes can be directly filed with SEBI, accompanied by a duly signed and stamped undertaking by the CEO (or equivalent) and Compliance Officer of the Manager of the AIF, in the format specified at Annexure 17. This materially reduces ongoing compliance costs and turnaround time for these categories.
Definitional Clarifications and Effective Date: The newly inserted Paragraph 2.7 clarifies that ‘Regular schemes’ means schemes other than LVFs, AI only funds and Angel Funds; ‘Launch’ means circulation of the PPM to investors for soliciting funds; and ‘Working days’ excludes Saturdays, Sundays and public holidays on which the concerned SEBI Office is closed. The circular comes into force with immediate effect and applies to PPMs of all schemes/funds filed with SEBI from the date of notification of the SEBI (AIF) (Second Amendment) Regulations, 2026.
Advisory Takeaways
From a capital markets advisory standpoint, the GARUDA mechanism represents a meaningful shift towards a “file-and-launch” regime for AI only funds, LVFs and Angel Funds, while retaining a calibrated 10 working day window for Regular schemes. Practitioners advising AIF Managers and Sponsors should immediately: (a) revisit PPM templates to incorporate the prescribed disclaimer clauses; (b) ensure internal sign-off protocols are calibrated to the CEO/Compliance Officer undertaking route for AI only funds, LVFs and Angel Funds; (c) align scheme naming conventions for any new launches; and (d) update change-management workflows to leverage the direct filing route for PPM modifications in exempt categories.
SEBI Tightens Municipal Debt Framework: Lower Face Value, Two-Step Escrow, and Relaxed Disclosure Timelines
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has issued a comprehensive Circular No. HO/17/11/24(1)2026-DDHS-POD1/I/18526/2026, dated August 11, 2026, operationalising certain amendments to the SEBI (Issue and Listing of Municipal Debt Securities) Regulations, 2015 (“ILMDS Regulations”). The amendments were originally notified through a Gazette Notification dated July 08, 2026, pursuant to the recommendations of a Working Group constituted in August 2024. The circular introduces structural reforms across three critical areas—face value norms, escrow architecture for pooled finance vehicles, and disclosure timelines—each carrying significant implications for issuers, merchant bankers, and investors in the municipal debt market.
On the face value front, SEBI has now prescribed a bifurcated structure for municipal debt securities issued on private placement basis. Issuers may now issue securities at a face value of either Rs. One Lakh or Rs. Ten Thousand, as deemed fit. Importantly, securities issued at the lower Rs. Ten Thousand face value must carry a fixed maturity and are prohibited from having any structured obligations, thereby ring-fencing retail participation to plain-vanilla debt instruments. The trading lot on stock exchanges has also been aligned with the face value, ensuring fungibility and reducing odd-lot frictions. These requirements, however, apply exclusively to privately placed issues and not to public issues, leaving the public issue framework unchanged.
The circular introduces a notable structural reform through a “two-step escrow account mechanism” applicable where the listed entity is a pooled finance vehicle or Special Purpose Vehicle (“SPV”) set up under the Pooled Finance Development Fund Scheme of the Government of India. Under this mechanism, constituent municipalities are required to create and maintain the prescribed escrow accounts, including separate Interest payment accounts and Sinking fund accounts. Funds from these municipal-level accounts must be transferred to corresponding accounts maintained at the SPV level, in accordance with the agreement between the SPV and the constituent municipalities. A critical investor-protection feature is the requirement for the SPV to maintain, throughout the tenure of the securities, an amount equivalent to one year’s interest obligation in the Interest payment account, thereby creating a liquidity buffer. SEBI has also permitted SPVs to adopt specified credit enhancement structures—including additional cash collateral, program equity by the state government, access to state finance commission devolutions to ULBs, and full or partial credit guarantees from high-rated DFIs or multilateral institutions—to strengthen credit profiles and investor confidence.
On the disclosure front, SEBI has relaxed the timelines for submission of financial results by listed municipal entities, acknowledging practical difficulties in data collection and interdepartmental coordination. The deadline for half-yearly unaudited financial results has been extended from forty-five days to sixty days from the end of the first half year, while the timeline for annual audited financial results has been extended from sixty days to ninety days from the end of the financial year. This relaxation provides operational breathing room to municipal issuers but also recalibrates investor expectations on the frequency and timeliness of financial disclosures.
The provisions of the circular are applicable with immediate effect. The circular has been issued in exercise of powers conferred under Section 11(1) of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992, read with Regulation 29 of the ILMDS Regulations, reinforcing SEBI’s investor-protection mandate and its role in deepening the municipal debt securities market in India.
SEBI Tightens Stress Testing Net for Commodity Derivatives: Z-Score Threshold Slashed from 10 to 5
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), vide its Circular No: HO/47/16/14(1)2026-MRD-POD1/I/18580/2026, dated August 12, 2026, has revised the Z-Score threshold applicable to historical scenario stress testing for the Commodity Derivatives Segment, marking a significant calibration shift in the risk management framework governing Recognised Clearing Corporations. The circular addresses representations received from market participants seeking a review of the extant Z-Score provision contained in paragraph 22 of Annexure O of the SEBI Master Circular for Commodity Derivatives Segment dated August 04, 2023, which governs the Core Settlement Guarantee Fund (“Core SGF”) and standardised stress testing methodology.
Under the existing framework, peak historical return scenarios were computed by considering the maximum percentage rise and fall in prices over the Margin Period of Risk (“MPOR”) during the preceding 15 years, with extreme price movements beyond a Z-Score of 10 being replaced by price movements corresponding to that threshold. The mean and sigma of returns over the applicable MPOR period across 15 years were used for the Z-Score calculation.
Pursuant to the recommendations of SEBI’s Risk Management Review Committee (“RMRC”), public comments, and with the stated objective of facilitating Ease of Doing Business, SEBI has now reduced the Z-Score threshold from 10 to 5. Consequently, price movements corresponding to a Z-Score of 5 will now replace extreme price movements beyond that threshold in peak historical returns of all commodities, while the underlying methodology of using mean and sigma of returns over the applicable MPOR period across 15 years remains unchanged.
Key takeaways:
This revision carries material implications for clearing corporations operating in the commodity derivatives space. The lowering of the Z-Score threshold from 10 to 5 effectively expands the universe of extreme price movements that will be captured under the peak historical return scenario, since a lower Z-Score corresponds to a less extreme statistical outlier being retained in the stress test rather than being capped. This translates into more conservative stress loss estimates, which in turn impacts Core SGF sizing, margin calibration, and overall capital adequacy assessments of clearing corporations.
The circular comes into force with immediate effect, leaving no transition window for affected clearing corporations to recalibrate their stress testing models, internal risk management frameworks, and reporting protocols. Clearing corporations must therefore undertake immediate review of their stress testing outputs, Core SGF contribution computations, and member communication to ensure compliance from the date of the circular itself.
The circular has been issued in exercise of powers conferred under Section 11(1) of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992, read with Regulation 51 of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) (Stock Exchanges and Clearing Corporations) Regulations, 2018, reinforcing SEBI’s statutory authority to regulate risk management architecture at clearing corporations in the interest of investor protection and orderly market development.
SEBI’s Inspection Overhaul: One-Third Fewer Visits, But Risk-Based Scrutiny Intensifies
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), vide Press Release No. 44/2026 dated August 7, 2026, has announced a rationalised and risk-based inspection framework for market intermediaries, including stock brokers, Depository Participants (DPs), Investment Advisers (IAs) and Research Analysts (RAs). The reform is anchored on the premise that Stock Exchanges and Depositories already conduct regular inspections of these intermediaries, and accordingly SEBI has adopted an enhanced approach for its own inspections commencing from Financial Year 2026-27.
The most consequential change from an advisory standpoint is the rationalisation of SEBI’s own inspection footprint. The targeted number of inspections to be carried out by SEBI in FY 2026-27 has been brought down to approximately one-third of the inspections conducted in the preceding financial year. This is a material relief for compliant intermediaries, particularly Qualified Stock Brokers (“QSBs”), as SEBI has simultaneously decided to discontinue repetitive annual comprehensive inspections of compliant entities. The stated objective is to collectively enhance the Ease of Doing Business for intermediaries.
However, the lighter touch is not uniform. SEBI has clarified that entities which repeatedly feature across shortlisting parameters over time, carry high ‘risk scores’, or trigger multiple alerts processed by Exchanges will continue to be prioritised for inspection. This signals a clear pivot towards a dynamic, risk-based supervisory model rather than a calendar-based inspection cycle. Intermediaries should accordingly reassess their internal compliance, surveillance and alert-management frameworks, as Exchanges’ alerts will now carry significant regulatory weightage.
A second structural reform relates to joint inspections. Where feasible, SEBI will conduct joint inspections of entities holding multiple intermediary registrations through different departments, with the objective of reducing the number of inspection visits across the financial year. For conglomerates and entities registered across multiple SEBI-regulated categories (for example, as a stock broker, DP, IA and RA simultaneously), this should translate into fewer but more consolidated inspection interactions.
The third notable shift is in the shortlisting methodology. Greater emphasis is being placed on alerts generated by Exchanges, complaints and social media, with higher weightage assigned to recent instances of possible violations. Consequently, shortlisting will now be undertaken on a quarterly basis rather than annually. This compresses the response window for intermediaries and elevates the importance of real-time complaint handling, social media monitoring and exchange-level alert remediation.
Finally, SEBI has expanded the scope of intelligence-driven inspections. Inspections will be undertaken based on market intelligence and references, including inputs received from Regional Offices (“ROs”) and Local Offices (“LOs”), covering themes such as technical glitches, cyber incidents and Authorised Persons of stock brokers based on references received. This widens the trigger base beyond traditional financial and operational parameters and brings cyber resilience, IT governance and the conduct of Authorised Persons squarely within SEBI’s inspection radar.
Key takeaway:
The circular marks a decisive shift from periodic, comprehensive inspections to a risk-weighted, intelligence-led and consolidated supervisory regime. Compliant intermediaries stand to benefit from reduced regulatory disruption, while entities with elevated risk profiles, weak alert management or cyber vulnerabilities should expect heightened scrutiny. Firms should proactively calibrate their compliance, cyber and surveillance frameworks in anticipation of quarterly shortlisting cycles.
MMRDA issued a Press Release – MMRDA signs agreement with Singapore’s Surbana Jurong for Mumbai 3.0 master plan
The Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority (MMRDA) has signed an agreement with Singapore-headquartered Surbana Jurong Infrastructure Pte Ltd for the preparation of the Vision Document, Master Plan and related planning framework for “Mumbai 3.0.””
The agreement marks a significant step towards translating Maharashtra’s vision of developing Mumbai 3.0 as a new global urban and economic growth centre into a structured planning framework. The exercise is expected to provide a long-term vision and integrated planning framework to guide the future development of the region.
Legal Updates (Aug 03 – Aug 08, 2026)
Legal Updates (Aug 03 – Aug 08, 2026)
CASE UPDATES
Weekly Updates (Aug 03 – Aug 08, 2026)
A person who acquires possession of public premises through a statutory auction conducted by a secured creditor under the SARFAESI Act, 2002, and holds a sale certificate, cannot be classified as being in “unauthorised occupation” within the meaning of Section 2(g) of the M.P. Lok Parisar (Bedakhali) Adhiniyam, 1974
The Madhya Pradesh High Court in the case of Competent Authority-Cum-Executive Director M.P Industrial Development Corporation vs Shri Ramraja Industries PLTO [Writ Petition No. 1771 of 2021] dated July 28, 2026, has held that a person who acquires possession of public premises through a statutory auction conducted by a secured creditor under the SARFAESI Act, 2002, and holds a sale certificate, cannot be classified as being in “unauthorised occupation” within the meaning of Section 2(g) of the M.P. Lok Parisar (Bedakhali) Adhiniyam, 1974, merely because disputes have arisen regarding formal transfer of leasehold rights or liability for past dues of the predecessor-in-interest.
The Court explained that the summary eviction mechanism under the Adhiniyam is not a remedy available to the lessor-State instrumentality for resolving disputes relating to transfer of leasehold rights or recovery of financial liabilities arising from a SARFAESI auction sale. Such disputes must be adjudicated through appropriate civil or statutory remedies available in law, and the auction purchaser cannot be evicted under the Adhiniyam solely on account of such disputes.
The Court observed that a person who enters possession of industrial land pursuant to a public auction conducted by a secured creditor under the SARFAESI Act, 2002, and holds a sale certificate cannot be equated with a rank trespasser or a person in clandestine occupation. The very foundation of such possession is traceable to a statutory process, and it cannot be brought within the ambit of “unauthorised occupation” as defined under Section 2(g) of the M.P. Lok Parisar (Bedhakli) Adhiniyam, 1974, merely because disputes subsequently arose regarding formal transfer of leasehold rights or liability for earlier dues.
The Court emphasised that the summary eviction mechanism under the M.P. Lok Parisar (Bedhakli) Adhiniyam, 1974 is confined to eviction of persons in unauthorised occupation of public premises. It cannot be invoked by a State instrumentality to resolve controversies relating to transfer of leasehold rights or determination of financial liabilities arising out of an auction sale. Such disputes must be adjudicated through appropriate civil or statutory remedies and not through the summary eviction route.
The Court also observed that an auction purchaser in a “free from encumbrance” SARFAESI sale cannot be saddled with past liabilities incurred by the predecessor-in-interest prior to the date of the sale certificate. If the State instrumentality is entitled to recover any amount representing arrears or liabilities attributable to the previous lessee, it must pursue remedies against the person legally liable therefor, including the secured creditor, if permissible in law, and not against the auction purchaser through eviction proceedings.
Contractual rights available to financial creditors under Debenture Trust Deeds, including escrow arrangements, reserved matter approvals, inspection and monitoring rights, and oversight over fund utilisation, constitute protective covenants intended to safeguard the lenders’ financial exposure, but does not amount to related party control under IBC
The Delhi Bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) in the case of Rishi Gupta vs IDBI Trusteeship Services Limited [I.A. 3699 ND 2024] dated July 10, 2026, has held that contractual rights available to financial creditors under Debenture Trust Deeds, including escrow arrangements, reserved matter approvals, inspection and monitoring rights, and oversight over fund utilisation, constitute protective covenants intended to safeguard the lenders’ financial exposure and ensure completion of the financed project. Such commercial safeguards, without evidence of actual management control over the affairs of the Corporate Debtor, cannot attract the statutory disqualification contained in Section 21(2) read with Section 5(24) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
The Tribunal observed that although the powers of the Board of Directors stand suspended upon commencement of CIRP, suspended directors do not cease to be participants in the insolvency process. The constitution of the Committee of Creditors is the very foundation of the CIRP, and any allegation that its composition is contrary to the provisions of the Code cannot be rejected solely on the ground that it has been raised by suspended directors. The Applicants were not seeking to interfere with the commercial wisdom of the CoC but were challenging the very constitution of the CoC on the ground of a statutory embargo under Section 21(2) of the Code.
The Tribunal examined the transaction documents in detail and observed that the rights relied upon by the Applicants substantially relate to safeguarding the utilisation of monies advanced by the financial creditors, ensuring completion of the financed project, monitoring project revenues, and preventing diversion of funds. Such stipulations are commonplace in structured project finance transactions, particularly in the real estate sector where lenders routinely insist upon escrow arrangements, monitoring mechanisms, reporting obligations, and approval requirements for specified financial decisions.
The Tribunal further observed that the existence of escrow mechanisms or restrictions upon utilisation of project revenues cannot, by themselves, establish management control over the Corporate Debtor. The transaction documents indicated that day-to-day execution of the project, operation of the Project Operating Account, construction activities, and management of the affairs of the Corporate Debtor continued to remain with the management of the Corporate Debtor. The rights retained by the financial creditors were intended to secure repayment of their financial exposure and ensure proper deployment of the funds advanced by them.
The Tribunal observed that if every lender insisting upon affirmative covenants, reporting obligations, escrow controls, and approval rights were to be treated as exercising management control over the borrower, virtually every secured project finance lender would become disentitled from participating in the Committee of Creditors. Such an interpretation would be wholly inconsistent with the scheme and object of the Code.
An unsecured loan extended by an entity whose promoter holds shares in the corporate debtor qualifies as “financial debt” under Section 5(8)(f) of the IBC if it carries interest and has the commercial effect of a borrowing
The Indore Bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) in the case of Tanay Securities & Sevices vs Organic World [CP(IB)/60(MP)2024] dated August 03, 2026, has clarified that promoter-shareholder overlap does not disentitle a financial creditor from invoking Section 7 IBC, and oral loan with interest, TDS deposits, and audited acknowledgements are suffice to establish financial debt and default. The Tribunal also held that an unsecured loan extended by an entity whose promoter holds shares in the corporate debtor qualifies as “financial debt” under Section 5(8)(f) of the IBC if it carries interest and has the commercial effect of a borrowing. The source or motivation of the lender is immaterial once money is disbursed against consideration for the time value of money.
The NCLT also clarified that a corporate debtor cannot defeat an admitted debt by unilaterally claiming that repayment of unsecured dues is contingent on prior clearance of secured lender dues, absent any documented covenant, negative lien, or subordination agreement binding the financial creditor.
The Tribunal noted that the Corporate Debtor did not dispute the factum of disbursement of the principal sums or the repayment of Rs. 45 lakhs. The Corporate Debtor’s own e-mail explicitly acknowledged the “unsecured loan from promoters” and merely sought deferment of repayment, an unambiguous admission of debt. The disbursement, made against payment of interest at 2% per annum, evidenced by consistent TDS deposits and reflection in audited financial statements for three consecutive years, squarely falls within Section 5(8)(f) of the IBC, being “any amount raised under any other transaction… having the commercial effect of a borrowing”. The source or motivation of the lender is immaterial once money has been disbursed against consideration for the time value of money.
The Tribunal rejected the Corporate Debtor’s defence that there is “no default” because repayment of the unsecured loan is contingent upon prior repayment of secured dues to the Bank. No document was placed on record, nor even alleged, to show that the Bank imposed any covenant or negative lien prohibiting repayment of unsecured dues to third parties. The plea of an internal understanding subordinating repayment of the Applicant’s dues to the Bank’s dues is a unilateral arrangement asserted by the Corporate Debtor and cannot be read into the loan transaction so as to defeat an admitted debt. The Corporate Debtor’s own admission of liability, coupled with the recall notice and the failure to make payment thereafter, establishes default under Section 3(12) of the IBC.
The Tribunal found the corporate veil-lifting contention unpersuasive. It is an admitted position that the Applicant and its promoters were never members of the Board of Directors of the Respondent, nor involved in its day-to-day management. The doctrine of indoor management operates to protect a third party who has dealt with a company at arm’s length from being saddled with liability for that company’s internal governance. Even if Smt. Shashi Jain holds shares in the Respondent in her individual capacity, that fact alone does not convert the Applicant company into a “promoter” of the Corporate Debtor, nor disentitle it from enforcing an admitted debt.
As regards the pendency of proceedings under Sections 241-242 of the Companies Act, 2013, the Tribunal noted that these proceedings are directed against a different entity (M/s Mittal Soya Proteins Private Limited) and relate to allegations of oppression and mismanagement, a subject matter entirely distinct from the existence of the admitted Financial Debt. A dispute of an entirely different genre, involving different parties and different reliefs, cannot be pressed into service to defeat an otherwise complete application under Section 7. The IBC, being a special statute, takes precedence over the Companies Act, 2013 by virtue of Section 238 of the IBC, as held by the Supreme Court in Innovative Industries Ltd. v. ICICI Bank.
Dispute relating to taxation is arbitrable when it falls within the contractual domain, such as determining which party is contractually liable to pay tax, reimbursement of tax paid, or interpretation of contractual tax clauses, but is not arbitrable when it requires statutory determination by taxing authorities, such as determination of tax rates, classification of goods, or challenge to statutory tax arrangements
The Allahabad High Court in the case of U.P. Public Works Department vs Vriddhi Infratech India [Arbitration Appeal No. – 35 of 2025] dated July 21, 2026, has held that dispute relating to taxation is arbitrable when it falls within the contractual domain, such as determining which party is contractually liable to pay tax, reimbursement of tax paid, or interpretation of contractual tax clauses, but is not arbitrable when it requires statutory determination by taxing authorities, such as determination of tax rates, classification of goods, or challenge to statutory tax arrangements. In the present case, the dispute was arbitrable as it was confined to the manner of GST calculation as per competing guidelines and did not encroach upon the exclusive domain of the taxing authority.
The Court clarified that borrowing technical specifications from MoRTH in a contract does not automatically import MoRTH’s taxation guidelines or SOP into the contract, especially when the contract contains a separate and specific tax clause. Further, technical, financial, and commercial requirements are treated separately in contract administration, and borrowing one does not implicitly subsume the other unless specifically provided for. A directory SOP framed for EPC contracts cannot be made binding on item rate contracts without cogent evidence or contractual stipulation permitting such extension.
Government Orders issued by the State Government in the course of its business, partaking the nature of executive instructions, are binding on the government department to which they are addressed, and an arbitral tribunal cannot discard their applicability without recording cogent reasons. An arbitral tribunal, being a creature of contract, cannot re-write the contract or fill in lacunae, and findings based on conjectures and assumptions without backing of cogent evidence render the award susceptible to interference under Section 34 and Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
The Court laid down a comprehensive framework distinguishing arbitrable from non-arbitrable tax disputes. Under “Head-A” fall disputes that can be resolved within the contract, such as determining inter se tax liability between contracting parties, reimbursement of tax paid, tax sharing or indemnity clauses, and interpretation of contractual phrases like “inclusive of all taxes” in the context of a newly introduced tax. Under “Head-B” fall disputes requiring statutory determination through tax laws, such as those encroaching upon the exclusive domain of the taxing authority, challenging statutory tax arrangements, determining classification or entries under a taxing statute, determining rate of taxation, or disputes between a contracting party and the State as sovereign.
The Court held that the present dispute fell under Head-A, as it was confined to whether GST should be calculated as per the MoRTH SOP or the State Government Orders, it did not involve adjudication of whether a transaction was taxable, nor did it challenge any statutory tax arrangement or require determination of tax rate or classification. The Court also noted that the objection of non-arbitrability was raised for the first time in the Section 37 appeal, never having been raised before the Arbitral Tribunal under Section 16 or before the Commercial Court under Section 34.
On the issue of penalty and interest, the Court observed that under the GST Act, the liability to pay tax is on the assessee (the contractor), who was required to deposit the tax in time. If the contractor failed to do so, it was the contractor who should bear the interest and penalty. The Sole Arbitrator, without recording a clear finding that a specific tax amount was due and payable within a specified time, that non-payment was solely attributable to the department’s negligence, and that the contractor had actually suffered interest and penalty payable to the GST Department, merely invoked Section 50 of the GST Act to make the department liable for interest and penalty. This amounted to the Arbitrator acting as an Assessing Officer.
A party cannot unilaterally enlarge the contractual liability of the other party through one-sided correspondence or by reference to obligations arising under an independent contract with a third party, in the absence of a mutually accepted contractual stipulation
The Delhi High Court in the case of Vantage Integrated Securities Solution vs Spark Technologies [FAO (COMM) 203/2026] dated August 05, 2026, has held that a buyer cannot adjust admitted dues against liquidated damages suffered under a separate contract with a third party absent any mutually accepted contractual stipulation. The Court held that party cannot unilaterally enlarge the contractual liability of the other party through one-sided correspondence or by reference to obligations arising under an independent contract with a third party, in the absence of a mutually accepted contractual stipulation.
The Court emphasised that the defence of adjustment of admitted dues against alleged losses fails where there is no contractual provision or subsequent mutual agreement incorporating such liability, and reliance on Sections 55, 73 and 74 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 cannot substitute for the absence of a foundational contractual obligation. The Court found no infirmity in the Sole Arbitrator’s conclusion that the Purchase Order did not contain any stipulation declaring time to be of the essence. The Court noted that although specific delivery dates were mentioned, there was no contractual provision making delayed delivery a ground for fastening liability upon the Respondent or requiring it to bear liquidated damages.
The Court further observed that merely because the supplies were intended for use in another contract awarded by the RBI would not, by itself, alter or rewrite the contractual relationship between the Appellant and the Respondent, and that the obligations and liabilities of the parties must be gathered from the terms of the contract between them and not from conditions in a separate agreement with a third party. The Appellant was unable to point to any clause in the Purchase Order whereby the Respondent agreed that time would be the essence or that it would be liable for liquidated damages incurred under the Appellant’s independent contract with the RBI.
On the plea of adjustment of outstanding dues against liquidated damages, the Court noted that the Sole Arbitrator found no contractual stipulation or mutually accepted arrangement entitling the Appellant to recover alleged damages from the Respondent or to unilaterally adjust the admitted amount payable. The communication dated Aug 26, 2015 merely conveyed the Appellant’s apprehension that liquidated damages might be imposed by the RBI and its intention to recover the same from the Respondent, but neither formed part of the Purchase Order nor constituted a contractual stipulation, and there was nothing on record to indicate that the Respondent accepted the said stipulation or that the parties mutually agreed to modify the contractual terms.
The Court held that the reliance on Sections 73 and 74 of the Contract Act did not advance the Appellant’s case because the very foundation for claiming compensation, namely a contractual obligation making the Respondent liable for the alleged losses, was found to be absent by the Sole Arbitrator upon interpretation of the Purchase Order and appreciation of evidence.
REGULATORY UPDATES
RBI Mandates Comprehensive Digital Payment Security Controls for Commercial Banks
The Reserve Bank of India has issued the RBI (Commercial Banks – Digital Payment Security Controls) Directions, 2026, bearing reference number RBI/DoS/2026-27/411, dated July 31, 2026. These Directions come into effect immediately upon issuance and are applicable to Commercial Banks, meaning banking companies (other than Small Finance Banks, Payments Banks, and Local Area Banks), corresponding new banks, and the State Bank of India, as defined under clauses (c), (da), and (nc) of Section 5 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. The scope extends to any digital payment product or service offered by the bank for financial or non-financial transactions, including balance enquiry, PIN set/change, mobile banking registration, OTP generation, mini-statement, transaction status checking, and dispute/grievance raising, whether offered directly by the bank or through systems operated by RBI or RBI-authorised Payment System Operators, along with associated IT assets.
The Directions adopt definitions sourced from the Financial Stability Board (FSB) Cyber Lexicon unless otherwise specified, covering key terms such as Availability, Confidentiality, Cyber, Cybersecurity, Cyber-attack, Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS), Framework (adapted from ISACA glossary), Information System, Integrity, Malware, Penetration Testing, Phishing, Vulnerability, and Vulnerability Assessment. All other undefined expressions bear the meanings assigned under the RBI Act, 1934, Banking Regulation Act, 1949, Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, Information Technology Act, 2000, Companies Act, 2013, or any statutory modification, re-enactment, or RBI-issued regulation or glossary. The Board of Directors of the bank shall approve policies related to digital payment products and services, and such policies shall be reviewed at least annually by the Board.
Key issues:
Governance and Management of Security Risks: The bank shall formulate a Board-approved policy for digital payment products and services addressing Functionality, Security, and Performance (FSP) parameters, including controls for confidentiality and integrity of customer data, availability of requisite infrastructure with backup, secure build with robust performance, capacity building with scalability, minimal customer service disruption, efficient dispute resolution, and adequate review mechanisms with swift corrective action. Foreign Banks need not maintain a separate local policy if the prescribed aspects are appropriately covered in their global policy. The Board and Senior Management shall be responsible for implementation, with the policy reviewed at least annually. The policy shall require every digital payment product to address the mechanics of the payment cycle, security aspects, validations till settlement, pictorial representation of the digital path, exception handling, UAT in multiple stages before roll-out, sign-off from multiple stakeholders, and data archival requirements. The bank shall articulate the need for external assessment of the entire process including logic, build, and security aspects, and shall incorporate processes for identifying, analysing, monitoring, and managing specific risks including compliance and fraud risk on a continual and holistic basis.
Senior Management shall maintain performance monitoring systems and key performance indicators, define product-level limits on acceptable security risk, document specific security objectives and performance criteria with quantitative benchmarks, compare actual results with projections periodically, and modify business plans based on security performance. The bank shall have trained resources with necessary expertise, and where dependent on third-party service providers, shall maintain adequate oversight and controls. Risk assessments shall be conducted both prior to establishing services and regularly thereafter, factoring in the technology stack, known vulnerabilities at each touchpoint, third-party dependence, integration risks, customer experience, reconciliation, interoperability, data storage and privacy, operational and fraud risk, business continuity, cybersecurity compliance, and compatibility aspects. The risk assessment shall cover the surrounding ecosystem, protect payment data, evaluate system resilience, and include Risk and Control Self-Assessment (RCSA) exercises to arrive at residual risk. The bank shall maintain a database of all systems storing customer data and compliance with PCI standards, evaluate risks of chosen technology platforms and application architecture, review risk scenarios before major infrastructure changes, develop sound internal control systems, ensure robust and scalable digital payment architecture, and periodically test backed-up data and applications at least on a half-yearly basis.
Other Generic Security Controls: The communication protocol in digital payment channels shall adhere to secure standards with appropriate encryption. Web applications shall not store sensitive information in HTML hidden fields, cookies, or client-side storage. The bank shall implement Web Application Firewall (WAF) solutions and DDoS mitigation techniques. Key lengths, algorithms, cipher suites, digital certificates, and applicable protocols shall be strong, adopting internationally accepted and published standards that are not deprecated or insecure. Digital certificates shall be renewed well in time. Mobile and internet banking applications shall have effective logging and monitoring capabilities to track user activity, security changes, and identify anomalous behaviour and transactions.
Application Security Life Cycle: The bank shall implement multi-tier application architecture segregating application, database, and presentation layers, and follow a ‘secure by design’ approach embedding security within the development lifecycle. Security objectives shall be explicitly defined across requirements gathering, designing, development, testing (including source code review), implementation, maintenance, monitoring, and decommissioning phases. The bank shall adopt threat modelling during application lifecycle management. For third-party licensed applications, source code escrow arrangements shall be put in place. Security testing including source code review, Vulnerability Assessment (VA), and Penetration Testing (PT) shall be conducted — VA at least half-yearly, PT at least annually, and additionally whenever new infrastructure or applications are introduced or major changes are performed. Testing shall cover OWASP standards, and where source code is not owned by the bank, a certificate from the developer shall be obtained confirming freedom from known vulnerabilities, malware, and covert channels. Penal provisions shall be included in third-party contracts for non-compliance. The bank shall compare vulnerability scan results to verify remediation, perform authenticated-mode scanning, test functionality and security controls before launch, monitor for non-genuine or malicious applications on app stores, ensure server-side checks against unauthorised applications, implement secure APIs referencing OWASP-MASVS, OWASP-ASVS, ISO 12812, and NIST standards, and redact or mask customer information transmitted via SMS or emails.
Authentication Framework: The bank shall implement multi-factor authentication for payments through electronic modes and fund transfers, including cash withdrawals from ATMs, micro-ATMs, and business correspondents through digital payment applications, with at least one authentication methodology being dynamic or non-replicable (e.g., OTP, device binding and SIM, biometric, PKI, hardware tokens, EMV chip card with server-side verification). The authentication methods shall act as a strong fraud deterrent, be difficult to compromise, protect confidentiality of payment data, and address cyber-attack mechanisms like phishing, keylogging, spyware, and malware. The bank may adopt adaptive authentication based on risk assessment, user risk profile, and behaviour. Implementation shall be based on assessment of risks posed by the products, considering customer type, transactional requirements, sensitivity of information, and volume and value of transactions. Multi-factor authentication and alerts (via SMS and email) shall be implemented for all payment transactions, creation of new account linkages, change in account details, and revision of fund transfer limits. Alerts and OTPs shall identify the merchant name wherever applicable. The bank shall implement measures against man-in-the-middle, man-in-the-browser, and man-in-the-application attacks, ensure authenticated sessions remain intact throughout interaction with automatic termination on interference or closure, set maximum failed login or authentication attempts after which access is blocked, and have a secure procedure for re-activation with customer notification.
Fraud Risk Management: The bank shall document and implement configuration requirements for identifying suspicious transactional behaviour, including rules, preventive and detective controls, alert mechanisms for failed authentication attempts, and applicable time frames. System alerts shall be parameterised and monitored across various parameters including transaction velocity, high-risk merchant category codes, counterfeit card parameters, new account parameters, time zones, geo-locations, IP address origin, behavioural biometrics, transactions to mobile wallets or VPAs associated with vishing fraud, declined transactions, and transactions without approval codes. The bank shall conduct fraud analysis to identify reasons and prevention mechanisms, educate and train staff in fraud control tools, investigative techniques, cardholder and merchant education, scheme operating regulations, data processing, and liaison with law enforcement. The bank shall maintain updated contact details of service providers, intermediaries, and stakeholders for incident response coordination, and formulate Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) for handling payment ecosystem incidents.
Reconciliation Mechanism: A real-time or near-real-time (not later than 24 hours from receipt of settlement files) reconciliation framework shall be put in place for all digital payment transactions between the bank and all other stakeholders including payment system operators, business correspondents, card networks, payment system processors, payment aggregators, payment gateways, third-party technology service providers, and other participants, with a mechanism to monitor implementation and effectiveness.
Customer Protection, Awareness and Grievance Redressal Mechanism: The bank shall incorporate secure, safe, and responsible usage guidelines and training materials within digital payment applications, making it mandatory for customers to go through such guidelines (in their preferred language) during on-boarding and first use after each update. The application shall clearly specify the process and procedure for lodging customer grievances, with defined timelines for the bank’s response. The bank shall be guided by RBI’s circular on Online Dispute Resolution (ODR) System for Digital Payments dated August 6, 2020, as updated from time to time. Customers shall be educated about maintaining physical and logical security of devices, provided information about risks, benefits, and liabilities before subscribing, and informed of their rights, obligations, and responsibilities. Terms and conditions including privacy and security policy shall be readily available within the product, and all digital channels shall be offered on express willingness of customers without bundling. The bank shall provide clear communication on new security features, create public awareness on threats and attacks, caution customers against phishing, vishing, reverse phishing, and remote access of mobile devices, provide digital payment products only at the customer’s option based on specific written or authenticated electronic requisition with positive acknowledgement, and provide a mechanism on mobile and internet banking applications for customers to identify or mark a transaction as fraudulent for seamless and immediate notification, with capability for instant reporting to the corresponding beneficiary or counterparty entity.
Internet Banking Security Controls: In addition to Chapter III controls, banks offering internet banking shall implement additional authentication levels such as adaptive authentication and strong CAPTCHA with anti-bot features and server-side validation against brute force and DoS attacks, prevent DNS cache poisoning attacks, ensure secure handling of cookies, provide a virtual keyboard option, automatically terminate sessions after fixed inactivity periods, ensure secure delivery of passwords with limited validity and compulsory change on first login, and maintain uniform authentication procedure and appearance when accessed through external websites.
Mobile Payments Application Security Controls: In addition to Chapter III controls, banks offering mobile banking or mobile payments shall direct customers to reinstall the application on detection of anomalies, verify application version before enabling transactions, implement device policy enforcement with baseline requirements, ensure secure download and installation, deactivate older application versions in a phased but time-bound manner not exceeding six months, identify and block remote access applications, enforce device or application encryption, ensure minimal data collection and app permissions, implement application sandbox or containerisation and code obfuscation, validate device and operating system security and compatibility, check for rooted or jailbroken devices, host checksums of the current active version on public platforms, implement device binding through hardware, software, and service information with multi-device registration notifications and disablement facility, explore alternatives to SMS-based OTP, require re-authentication after designated inactivity periods and on each launch, identify unsecured network connections, prohibit storage of sensitive authentication information on the device with secure wiping on exit, limit writing of sensitive information to temp files with encryption, consider anti-malware capabilities, avoid raw SQL queries, secure against SQL injection vulnerabilities, encrypt sensitive data in the mobile application database, prevent loading web content on SSL/TLS negotiation errors, and display certificate errors to the user.
Card Payment Security Controls: In addition to Chapter III controls, banks issuing cards (credit, debit, or prepaid, physical or virtual) shall follow various PCI standards including PCI-PIN, PCI-PTS, PCI-HSM, and PCI-P2PE, over and above PCI-DSS and PCI-SSF, holistically as per applicability in both issuer and acquirer capacities, with appropriate confirmation from third parties on compliance and status reports to the IT Strategy Committee. Terminals at merchants shall be validated against PCI-P2PE, and PoS terminals with PIN entry shall be approved under PCI-PTS, with new terminals certified accordingly. The bank as an Acquirer shall secure its card payment infrastructure (UKPT or DUKPT/TLE). HSMs shall have tamper-proof logging enabled, clustering for high availability, access through ACLs with application-level isolation, privileged identity and access management, decryption and validation of keys and PIN at HSM, card PIN generation and printing at HSM-connected systems, CVV generation and validation at HSM, secure PIN block format, secure key management including Local Master Keys, and proper security for physical keys. ATMs shall have BIOS passwords, disabled USB ports, disabled auto-run, latest OS and software patches, terminal security solutions, time-based admin access, anti-skimming and whitelisting solutions, and supported OS versions. Card transactions shall be subject to robust surveillance and monitoring (especially overseas cash withdrawals), transaction limits at card, BIN, and bank levels set at the card network switch, transaction control mechanisms with caps on breach, 24×7 monitoring including weekends and holidays with incident response, no storage of card details in plain text, and secure processing of card details in readable format. Card data scanning tools shall be tested in test environments first, installed only on the bank’s premises and devices, not used remotely, with discovered data residing in the scanning tool, exportable data appropriately masked, and service providers given limited access only on the bank’s devices.
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RBI institutionalises IT governance structures through ITSCs and ISCs, requires independent CISO oversight for larger NBFCs, prescribes time-bound cyber incident reporting, and enforces rigorous BCP/ DR testing with defined RTO and RPO targets
The Reserve Bank of India vide the RBI (NBFC – Cybersecurity, Technology: Risk, Resilience and Assurance Framework) Directions, 2026, bearing reference number RBI/DoS/2026-27/461, dated July 31, 2026, has adopted a scale-based regulatory approach with distinct chapters catering to different categories of NBFCs. Chapter III applies to NBFCs-Base Layer with asset size below ₹500 crore and Core Investment Companies. Chapter IV applies to NBFCs-Base Layer with asset size ₹500 crore and above. Chapter V applies to NBFCs-Top Layer, NBFCs-Upper Layer, and NBFCs-Middle Layer, excluding CICs.
This layered structure ensures that the cybersecurity and technology governance obligations are calibrated to the size, complexity, and systemic significance of the NBFC. The Board of Directors of every NBFC shall approve the strategies and policies related to Technology and Cybersecurity frameworks, which shall be reviewed at least annually by the Board. This provision applies across all layers, establishing the Board as the primary accountability holder for the technology and cybersecurity posture of the NBFC.
Key factors:
Requirements for NBFCs-Base Layer (Below ₹500 Crore) and CICs: NBFCs-Base Layer with asset size below ₹500 crore and CICs shall prioritise implementation of basic IT systems to digitise and secure primary business databases and put in place a Board-approved IT/IS policy incorporating basic security aspects such as physical and logical access controls, well-defined password policy, well-defined user roles, maker-checker concept, robust information security and cybersecurity controls, requirements regarding Digital Signature Certificates, Mobile Financial Services, and Social Media, system-generated reports for Senior Management, adequacy to file regulatory returns with RBI, a Board-approved Business Continuity Plan with periodic Board oversight, and arrangements for data backup with periodic testing. These NBFCs shall progressively scale up their IT systems as the size and complexity of operations increase.
Requirements for NBFCs-Base Layer (₹500 Crore and Above): NBFCs-Base Layer with asset size ₹500 crore and above shall establish a robust IT Governance framework integrated with their overall corporate governance structure, built upon the principles of value delivery, IT risk management, IT resource management, and performance management. The NBFC shall form an IT Strategy Committee chaired by an independent director, with the CIO and CTO as members, meeting at an appropriate frequency with no more than six months between two meetings. The NBFC shall formulate a Board-approved IT policy, put in place a robust Information Security framework with a Board-approved Information Security policy covering confidentiality, integrity, availability, and authenticity, and a Board-approved cybersecurity policy. The NBFC shall establish a vulnerability management process, develop cybersecurity preparedness indicators, and put in place a Cyber Crisis Management Plan addressing detection, response, recovery, and containment. Cyber incidents shall be reported on the DAKSH platform within six hours of detection. The NBFC shall undertake comprehensive IT risk assessment at least annually, develop safeguards for mobile financial services, handle social media risks, and establish ongoing information security training programs.
For IT operations, the NBFC shall have a Board-approved change management policy and a robust IT-enabled MIS with system-generated dashboards, NPA identification, product pricing, regulatory compliance capture, financial reports, treasury reports, fraud analysis, and incident reporting, with all regulatory returns being system-driven and ‘read-only’ access provided to RBI supervisors. IS Audit shall form an integral part of the Internal Audit system, conducted at least once a year, preferably prior to statutory audit, using a mix of manual techniques and Computer-Assisted Audit Techniques. The NBFC shall have a Board-approved BCP policy with Business Impact Analysis, recovery strategy, backup sites, annual testing using worst-case scenarios, and mechanisms to support testing of cyber resilience among vendors. For IT services outsourcing, the NBFC shall undertake comprehensive risk assessment prior to outsourcing, ensure contracts are vetted by legal counsel with provisions for monitoring, access to books and records, audit and inspection rights, and RBI access, with the Board or ITSC being ultimately responsible for outsourcing operations.
Requirements for NBFCs-Middle Layer and Above (Excluding CICs): NBFCs in the Middle Layer, Upper Layer, and Top Layer shall put in place a robust IT Governance Framework with key focus areas including strategic alignment, risk management, resource management, performance management, and Business Continuity/DR Management. The Board shall approve strategies and policies related to IT, information assets, business continuity, information security, and cybersecurity, reviewed at least annually. The ITSC shall have a minimum of three directors, be chaired by an independent director with substantial IT expertise (minimum seven years’ experience), and meet at least quarterly. An IT Steering Committee at Senior Management level shall meet quarterly, and an Information Security Committee under the oversight of the ITSC, headed by a representative from the risk management vertical, shall manage cyber and information security. The NBFC shall appoint a Head of IT Function as first line of defence and a senior-level CISO (preferably General Manager rank) who shall not have any direct reporting relationship with the Head of IT Function, shall not be given business targets, and shall directly report to the Executive Director or equivalent overseeing risk management. The CISO shall place a review of cybersecurity risks before the Board/RMCB/ITSC at least quarterly.
The NBFC shall establish a robust IT and Information Security Risk Management Framework, with the RMCB in consultation with the ITSC reviewing IT-related risks at least annually. Baseline cybersecurity and resilience requirements include a data migration policy with audit trails and signoffs, an enterprise data dictionary, physical and environmental controls for DC and DR sites with geographic separation and e-surveillance, application security with source code escrow arrangements and vendor certificates confirming freedom from vulnerabilities, capacity management with annual assessments, comprehensive audit trail capabilities, documented change and patch management policies, access controls with two-factor or multi-factor authentication for privileged users, controls on teleworking, third-party risk assessment, cryptographic controls using internationally accepted non-deprecated standards, and Straight Through Processing for critical applications. Vulnerability Assessment shall be conducted at least every six months and Penetration Testing at least once in 12 months for critical information systems and DMZ systems with customer interface, by independent experts, with identified vulnerabilities fixed in a time-bound manner.
BCP and DR policy shall adopt best practices such as ISO 22301, with DR drills for critical information systems conducted at least half-yearly, involving switchover to the DR site for at least a full working day. The NBFC shall achieve minimal RTO (as approved by ITSC) and near-zero RPO for critical information systems, with identical configurations and security patches at DC and DR. Cyber incident response and recovery management policy shall address classification, communication, and containment, with cyber incidents reported to RBI within six hours of detection on DAKSH and CERT-In notified proactively. Housing Finance Companies shall continue to report to NHB. The NBFC shall define suitable metrics including RPO and RTO for critical systems, implement scorecards for IT performance and maturity, and maintain a separate IS Audit function within Internal Audit with risk-based audit planning and ACB oversight.
Repeal and Saving: With the issuance of these Directions, all existing directions, instructions, and guidelines relating to Information Technology Framework and IT Governance applicable to NBFCs stand repealed, as communicated vide circular no. DoS.CO.PPG.66/11.01.005/2026-27 dated July 31, 2026. Notwithstanding such repeal, any action taken or purported to have been taken under the repealed directions shall continue to be governed by the provisions thereof, and all approvals or acknowledgments granted under the repealed directions shall be deemed as governed by these Directions. The repeal shall not prejudicially affect any right, obligation, or liability acquired, accrued, or incurred; any penalty, forfeiture, or punishment incurred; or any investigation, legal proceeding, or remedy in respect thereof.
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RBI New Directions Replace All Prior Fraud Risk Management Guidelines for Payments Banks, Introducing Board-Level Governance, Natural Justice Safeguards, and Strict Reporting Timelines
The Reserve Bank of India vide its RBI (Payments Banks – Fraud Risk Management) Directions, 2026 Notification No. RBI/DoS/2026-27/430, dated July 31, 2026, has consolidated and replaced all prior fraud risk management instructions applicable to Payments Banks under a single, unified framework issued under Section 35-A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. The core regulatory intent is to embed fraud risk management into the governance architecture of Payments Banks through Board-level ownership, mandatory committee oversight, and a dedicated organisational structure led by an officer of at least General Manager rank. The framework operationalises the Supreme Court’s natural justice mandate by requiring SCN, reasoned orders, and minimum response periods before any fraud classification that carries civil consequences. The Directions also introduce a calibrated reporting regime i.e., 14-day FMR filing, tiered LEA reporting by amount, CPFIR reporting for payment system frauds, and RBR reporting for physical security incidents, while simultaneously streamlining compliance by dispensing with monthly and flash reports. The five-year debarrment provision, extending to associated entities and persons, serves as a deterrent mechanism.
Key changes:
Preliminary (Chapter I): These Directions are issued by the Reserve Bank of India under Section 35-A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, and all other enabling provisions, in public interest. They are titled the Reserve Bank of India (Payments Banks – Fraud Risk Management) Directions, 2026, come into effect immediately upon issuance, and are applicable to all Payments Banks (collectively ‘PBs’, individually ‘PB’). They provide a framework for prevention, early detection, and timely reporting of incidents of fraud by Payments Banks to Law Enforcement Agencies (LEAs) and to RBI, and dissemination of information by RBI on matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Key definitions include ‘Central Fraud Registry (CFR)’ as a web-based searchable database maintained by RBI where fraud-related data flows directly from online reporting by the PB through Fraud Monitoring Returns (FMRs); ‘Date of Classification’ as the date when due approval from the competent authority has been obtained and a reasoned order is passed; ‘Date of Detection’ as the actual date when the fraud came to light in the concerned branch, audit, or department of the PB, and not the date of approval by the competent authority; ‘Date of Occurrence’ as the date when the actual misappropriation of funds has started taking place or the event occurred, as evidenced or reported in audit or other findings; and ‘Red Flagged Account’ as one where suspicion of fraudulent activity is thrown up by the presence of one or more Early Warning Signal (EWS) indicators, alerting deeper investigation from a potential fraud angle and requiring initiation of preventive measures by all banks.
Governance and Oversight (Chapter II): The PB shall put in place a Board-approved Fraud Risk Management Policy delineating roles and responsibilities of the Board, Board Committees, and Senior Management, covering prevention, early detection, investigation, staff accountability, monitoring, recovery, and reporting of frauds, along with a framework for EWS and Red Flagging of Accounts (RFA). The policy shall incorporate measures for ensuring compliance with the principles of natural justice in a time-bound manner, which at a minimum shall include: issuance of a detailed Show Cause Notice (SCN) to the Persons (including Third Party Service Providers, Professionals, Entities, and their Promoters or Whole-time and Executive Directors) against whom allegation of fraud is being examined, providing complete details of transactions, actions, or events on the basis of which declaration and reporting of a fraud is being contemplated; providing a reasonable time of not less than 21 days to respond to the SCN; having a well-laid-out system for issuance of SCN and examination of responses prior to declaring such Persons or Entities as fraudulent; and serving a reasoned Order conveying the decision regarding declaration or classification of the account as fraud or otherwise, containing relevant facts, submissions made against the SCN, and reasons for classification. This requirement of natural justice is applicable in all cases of fraud classification which may have civil consequences such as penal measures or caution listing, as observed in the judgement of the Hon’ble Supreme Court dated March 27, 2023 in the matter of State Bank of India and Others vs. Rajesh Agarwal and Others. Non-whole-time directors such as nominee directors and independent directors, who are normally not in charge of or responsible for the conduct of business of the company, may be taken into consideration before proceeding against them.
The Board shall review the Fraud Risk Management Policy at least once in three years, or more frequently as prescribed. The PB shall constitute a Special Committee of the Board for Monitoring and Follow-up of cases of Frauds (SCBMF) with a minimum of three members, consisting of a whole-time director and a minimum of two independent or non-executive directors, headed by one of the independent or non-executive directors. The SCBMF shall oversee the effectiveness of Fraud Risk Management, review and monitor cases of frauds including root cause analysis, and suggest mitigating measures. The Board shall decide the coverage, periodicity, and threshold amount of fraud cases to be placed before the SCBMF. The Senior Management shall be responsible for implementation of the policy and shall place a periodic review of incidents of fraud before the Board or the Audit Committee of Board (ACB). The PB shall put in place a transparent mechanism for Whistle Blower complaints on possible fraud cases or suspicious activities, and shall set up an appropriate organisational structure for institutionalisation of Fraud Risk Management within its overall risk management functions, with a senior official in the rank of at least a General Manager or equivalent responsible for monitoring and reporting of frauds.
Early Detection of Frauds – EWS and RFA Framework (Chapter III): The PB shall have a framework for EWS and RFA under the overall Fraud Risk Management Policy approved by the Board. The Risk Management Committee of the Board (RMCB) shall oversee the effectiveness of this framework, approve EWS indicators for monitoring banking transactions, and prescribe appropriate Turnaround Time (TAT), preferably not more than 30 days, for examination of EWS alerts or triggers. The RMCB shall review the status of red flagged accounts at periodic intervals as approved by the Board. The framework shall provide for a robust EWS integrated with the Core Banking Solution (CBS) or other operational systems; timely initiation of remedial action on alerts; periodic review of internal controls and systems; and effective use of the CFR. The PB shall develop or strengthen its EWS system by identifying suitable indicators and parameterising them for monitoring banking transactions, and shall continuously upgrade the system for enhancing its integrity and robustness. The design and specification of the EWS system shall ensure that personal and financial data of customers are secure and transaction monitoring for prevention or detection of potential fraud is on a real-time basis or with a minimum time lag. The PB shall remain vigilant in monitoring transactions in non-KYC compliant and money mule accounts. The Data Analytics and MI Unit or other dedicated analytics set up in the PB shall extensively monitor and analyse banking transactions, more specifically through digital platforms and applications, to identify unusual patterns and activities.
General Instructions (Chapter IV): The PB may incorporate necessary terms and conditions in its agreements with third-party service providers to hold them accountable where wilful negligence or malpractice by them is found to be a causative factor for fraud. After complying with the principles of natural justice, the PB shall report to the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) the details of such third parties or professionals involved in frauds, and the IBA would prepare caution lists of such third parties for circulation among banks. The PB shall initiate and complete the examination of staff accountability in all fraud cases in a time-bound manner. In cases involving very senior executives (MD and CEO, Executive Director, or Executives of equivalent rank), the ACB shall initiate examination of their accountability and place it before the Board, and such executives shall not participate in the meeting of the Board, ACB, or SCBMF in which their accountability is to be considered. Persons or Entities classified and reported as fraud by the PB, and also Entities and Persons associated with such Entities, shall be debarred from raising of funds and/or seeking additional credit facilities from financial entities regulated by RBI, for a period of five years from the date of full repayment of the defrauded amount or settlement amount agreed upon in case of a compromise settlement. An Entity will be deemed to be associated with another Entity if it is a subsidiary company as defined under clause 2(87) of the Companies Act, 2013, or falls within the definition of a ‘joint venture’ or an ‘associate company’ under clause 2(6) of Section 2 of the Companies Act, 2013. In case of a Natural Person, all entities in which she or he is associated as promoter, director, or as one in charge and responsible for the management of the affairs of the entity shall be deemed to be associated.
Reporting of Frauds to Law Enforcement Agencies (Chapter V): The PB shall immediately report incidents of fraud to LEAs, subject to applicable laws. For frauds involving amounts below ₹1 crore, the complaint shall be lodged with the State or Union Territory (UT) Police. For frauds involving ₹1 crore and above, in addition to the State or UT Police, the complaint shall also be lodged with the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO), Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India, and details are to be reported to SFIO in the FMR format. Although under Section 33 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS), a person is not mandatorily required to report to LEAs information on commission of all offences but only on those listed in that Section, the PB is advised to mandatorily report incidents of fraud involving an amount of ₹1 lakh or more to LEAs. The PB shall establish suitable nodal points or designate officers for reporting incidents of fraud to LEAs and for proper coordination to meet the requirements of the LEAs.
Reporting to Reserve Bank of India (Chapter VI): The PB shall report incidents of fraud to RBI through FMRs using the online portal, choosing the most appropriate category from among the prescribed categories, which include misappropriation of funds and criminal breach of trust; fraudulent encashment through forged instruments; manipulation of books of accounts or through fictitious accounts and conversion of property; cheating by concealment of facts and cheating by impersonation; forgery with the intention to commit fraud; wilful falsification, destruction, alteration, or mutilations of any book, electronic record, paper, writing, valuable security, or account with intent to defraud; cash shortages on account of frauds; fraudulent transactions involving foreign exchange; fraudulent electronic banking or digital payment related transactions committed on banks; and other types of fraudulent activity not covered under any of the above. The PB shall put in place systems and procedures to ensure that the information available in the CFR is used for credit risk and fraud risk management effectively. The PB is required to report payment system related disputed, suspected, or attempted fraudulent transactions to the Central Payments Fraud Information Registry (CPFIR), as required under the RBI Circular dated December 26, 2022. However, such transactions, if subsequently concluded as fraud committed on the PB, shall invariably be reported through FMR so as to be reflected in the CFR.
The PB shall furnish FMR in individual fraud cases, irrespective of the amount involved, immediately, but not later than 14 days from the date of classification of an incident or account as fraud. Updates to the FMR shall be provided through the FMR Update Application (FUA). Filing or reporting of the Monthly Certificate on Frauds, Monthly CFR Certificate, and Flash Report by the PB to RBI is not required. The PB shall also report frauds perpetrated in its group entities to RBI separately through e-mail, if such entities are not regulated or supervised by any financial sector regulatory or supervisory authority. Group entities mean both domestic and overseas subsidiaries, affiliates, and joint ventures as defined under applicable accounting standards, whether engaged in financial or non-financial services. The PB shall adhere to the prescribed timeframes for reporting, and delay in reporting could result in similar frauds being perpetrated elsewhere. The PB shall examine and fix staff accountability for delays in identification of fraud cases and in reporting to RBI. While reporting frauds, the PB shall ensure that persons or entities not involved or associated with the fraud are not reported in the FMR. The PB may, under exceptional circumstances, withdraw FMR or remove names of perpetrators from FMR, with due justification and with the approval of an official at least in the rank of a whole-time director. In cases where withdrawal or removal is necessitated due to Court directions, the PB may arrange to do so immediately, and such cases shall subsequently be placed before the official in the rank of Whole-time Director for information.
The PB shall close fraud cases using the ‘Closure Module’ where the fraud cases pending with LEAs or Court are disposed of and the examination of staff accountability has been completed. The PB is allowed, for limited statistical or reporting purposes, to close reported fraud cases involving amounts up to ₹1 crore where examination of staff accountability and disciplinary action, if any, have been taken, and either the investigation is going on or charge-sheet has not been filed in the Court by the LEA for more than three years from the date of registration of the FIR, or the charge-sheet is filed by the LEAs in the trial court and the trial has not commenced or is pending for more than three years from the date of registration of the FIR. In all closure cases, the PB shall maintain details of such cases for examination by auditors.
Cheque Related Frauds (Chapter VII): To ensure uniformity and avoid duplication, reporting of frauds involving forged instruments, including fake or forged instruments sent in clearing in respect of truncated instruments, shall continue to be done by the paying banker and not by the presenting banker. The presenting bank shall immediately hand over the underlying instrument to the drawee or paying bank, as and when demanded, to enable them to inform LEAs for investigation and further action under law and to report the fraud to RBI. However, in the case of presentment of an instrument which is genuine but payment has been made to a person who is not the true owner, or where the amount has been credited before realisation and subsequently the instrument is found to be fake or forged and returned by the paying bank, the presenting bank which is defrauded or is put to loss shall file the fraud report with RBI and inform the LEAs for investigation and further action under law.
Role of Auditors (Chapter VIII): During the course of the audit, auditors may come across instances where the transactions in the account or the documents point to the possibility of fraudulent transactions. In such a situation, the auditor should immediately bring it to the notice of the senior management and, if necessary, to the ACB of the PB for appropriate action. Internal Audit in the PB shall cover controls and processes involved in prevention, detection, classification, monitoring, reporting, closure, and withdrawal of fraud cases, as well as weaknesses observed in the critical processes in the fraud risk management framework of the PB, including delay in reporting, non-reporting, conduct of staff accountability examination, and prudential provisioning.
Reporting Cases of Theft, Burglary, Dacoity and Robbery (Chapter IX): The PB shall report instances of theft, burglary, dacoity, and robbery (including attempted cases) to the Fraud Monitoring Group (FMG), Department of Supervision, Central Office, Reserve Bank of India, immediately, not later than seven days from their occurrence, in the prescribed ‘Return on Bank Robberies, Dacoities, Thefts and Burglaries (RBR)’ format through e-mail. The PB shall also submit a quarterly Return (RBR) to RBI using the online portal, covering all such cases during the quarter, within 15 days from the end of the quarter to which it relates.
Repeal and Other Provisions (Chapter X): With the issue of these Directions, the existing directions, instructions, and guidelines relating to Fraud Risk Management as applicable to Payments Banks stand repealed, as communicated vide the circular dated July 31, 2026. Notwithstanding such repeal, any action taken or purported to have been taken, or initiated under the repealed directions, instructions, or guidelines shall continue to be governed by the provisions thereof. All approvals or acknowledgments granted under the repealed lists shall be deemed as governed by these Directions. The repeal shall not in any way prejudicially affect any right, obligation, or liability acquired, accrued, or incurred thereunder; any penalty, forfeiture, or punishment incurred in respect of any contravention committed thereunder; or any investigation, legal proceeding, or remedy in respect of any such right, privilege, obligation, liability, penalty, forfeiture, or punishment. The provisions of these Directions shall be in addition to, and not in derogation of, the provisions of any other laws, rules, regulations, or directions for the time being in force. For giving effect to the provisions of these Directions or to remove any difficulties in application or interpretation, RBI may issue necessary clarifications, and the interpretation of any provision given by RBI shall be final and binding.
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